 Hello and welcome to the session. Let us understand the following problem today. Write the following function in the simplest form. We have tan inverse of 1 by under root x square minus 1, where mod of x is greater than 1. Now let us write the solution. Where x is equal to sec theta, then under root x square minus 1 is equal to under root x square theta minus 1, which is equal to tan theta. Therefore tan inverse of 1 by under root x square minus 1 is equal to tan inverse of 1 by tan theta, which is equal to tan inverse of cot theta, which is equal to tan inverse of tan of pi by 2 minus theta. Which is equal to pi by 2 minus theta, which is equal to pi by 2 minus sec inverse x, because x is equal to sec theta, which implies theta is equal to sec inverse x. Therefore the required answer is pi by 2 minus sec inverse x. I hope you understood the problem. Bye and have a nice day.