 Hello and welcome to this session. Let us understand the following problem today. Find the value of the following tan inverse 2 cos of 2 sin inverse 1 by 2. Now let us write the solution. We know tan inverse 1 by 2 is equal to pi by 6. Therefore tan inverse of 2 cos of 2 into pi by 6 is equal to tan inverse of 2 cos pi by 3, which is equal to tan inverse of 2 into 1 by 2 because cos pi by 3 is equal to 1 by 2. This gets cancelled so which is equal to tan inverse of 1 which is equal to pi by 4. Therefore the required answer is pi by 4. I hope you understood the problem. Bye and have a nice day.