 Hi and welcome to the session. Let us discuss the following question. Consider function f from set 1, 2, 3 to set a, b, c even by f1 is equal to a, f2 is equal to b and f3 is equal to c. Find f inverse and show that inverse of f inverse is equal to f. Let us now start the solution. Here we have a function f from set 1, 2, 3 to set a, b, c even by f1 equal to a, f2 equal to b and f3 is equal to c. We can write f is equal to set of ordered pairs of 1, 2, b and 3, c. Clearly we can see all the elements of the set 1, 2, 3 have distinct images in the set a, b, c. So, the given function is a 1, 1 function. Also every element of the set a, b, c is the image of the sum element of the set 1, 2, 3. So, clearly the given function is a on 2 function also. We know function is invertible only when it is a 1, 1 and on 2 function. So, we can write this implies f is 1, 1 and on 2 function this implies f is invertible f inverse is given by set of ordered pairs of a, 1, b, 2, c, 3. You know if a function is bijective then its inverse is also bijective. So, f inverse is bijective. So, it is also invertible f inverse is invertible implies inverse of f inverse is also invertible. So, we get inverse of an f inverse is equal to set of ordered pairs of 1, 8, 2, b and 3, c. We can clearly see this set of ordered pairs is equal to set of ordered pairs of f. So, inverse of f inverse is equal to f. So, this is our required answer. This completes the session. Hope you understood the session. Take care and goodbye.