 Hello and welcome to this session. Let us understand the following problem today. We have sin of pi by 3 minus sin inverse of minus 1 by 2 is equal to a 1 by 2, b 1 by 3, c 1 by 4 and d 1. Now let us write the solution. We have pi by 3 minus sin inverse of minus 1 by 2 and we know inverse of minus half is equal to minus pi by 6 because inverse of minus half is equal to y which implies sin y is equal to minus half which implies minus sin pi by 6 is equal to sin of minus pi by 6. Therefore, now we get sin of pi by 3 minus minus pi by 6 is equal to sin of pi by 3 plus pi by 6 which is equal to sin of 2 pi plus pi by 6 which is equal to sin of 3 pi by 6 which is equal to sin of pi by 2 which is equal to 1. Therefore the correct answer is D. I hope you understood the problem. Bye and have a nice day.