 Welcome to the Hindu News Analysis by Shankar Aay's Academy for the date 20th of May 2020. The list of news articles taken up for today's analysis along with the page numbers of five different editions is given here for your reference. The handwritten notes in PDF format and the time stamping of all the news articles taken up for today's analysis is available in the description section and also in the comment section in the best interest of the viewers. Let us now begin our analysis. This news article talks about EPF and EPFO and this question has been framed based on this news article. In this context, first let us see what is meant by EPF and how it is significant for low salaried and low wage workers. EPF stands for Employee Provident Fund. It is basically Retirement Saving Scheme which the Government of India has mandated for all salaried employees. In simple words, it is a platform that allows salaried employees to save a certain part of their monthly income to build a corpus for post retirement life. All organizations in India that have more than 20 employees as per law is mandated to register with EPFO, nothing but the Employees Provident Fund organization. However, know that there are certain exceptions to this rule. Note that the Employee Provident Fund Scheme was introduced under the Employees Provident Fund and the Miscellaneous Act of 1952. At present, employee has to contribute 12% of the monthly income plus the dearness allowance to his EPF account every month. And if you see the employer also matches this 12% share of the employee. See in the employer's contribution of 12%, only 3.67% goes into EPF. The remaining 8.33% of the employer is put into employee's pension scheme. The total amount invested in the EPF scheme along with the interest earned throughout the investment tenure is exempted from tax at the time of withdrawal. However, the withdrawal amount is taxable if employee withdrew amount before completing five years of continuous service. So all these contributions that are accumulated together are administered by the Central Board of Trustees. This board is a statutory body which is constituted under the provisions of EPF Act. It is where this Employees Provident Fund organization comes into picture because this Central Board of Trustees is assisted by this Employees Provident Fund organization. Know that it is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labor and Employment. Now coming to the recent developments, the Union Government under Pradhan Mantri Garip Kalyan Yojana offered to pay both employee and employer's share. That is 12% plus 12% into their EPF accounts for the months of March, April and May. This is applicable only to wage earners below 15,000 per month in businesses having less than 100 workers. Under Pradhan Mantri Atma Nirbar Yojana, this is extended for three more months to the months of June, July and August. Now coming to today's news article, it says that the contribution rates for both employees and employers has been reduced to 10% from 12% for the months of May, June and July by the Central Government. And this was announced as part of Centre's economic relief package to deal with the COVID-19 pandemic. So reduction in the contribution rates means increase in liquidity, which means the employees can take higher salary to their home. As we discussed, there are EPFO schemes to ensure old age protection for organised workers, but there is no protection for those labourers who are working in unorganised sector. Say street vendors, midday meal workers, head loaders, brick kiln workers, cobblers, rag pickers etc. So to ensure old age protection for these unorganised workers, the Central Government launched a scheme which is called as Pradhan Mantri Sram Yogi Mandan Yojana. See it is voluntary and contributory pension scheme under which each subscriber shall receive a minimum assured pension of 3000 rupees per month after attaining the age of 60 years. The subscriber is required to contribute the prescribed contribution amount from the age of joining the scheme till the age of 60 years. For example, if a person enters the scheme at an age of 29 years, he is required to contribute 100 rupees per month till the age of 60 years and an equal amount of 100 rupees will be contributed by the Central Government. So this is how this scheme will work. So the contribution amount will vary based on which age the person joins the scheme. Note that this is a central sector scheme and it is administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and it is implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India and CSE governance services India Limited. Now one point which you need to note here is that the offices of the Employees Providence Fund Organisation will act as facilitation centres for this Pradhan Mantri Sram Yogi Mandan Yojana. Facilitation centres means it will give information related to the scheme, its benefits and the procedure that needs to be followed to the unorganised workers who are the beneficiaries of this scheme. So remember that Employees Providence Fund Organisation will act as facilitation centres related to this scheme. This is the only connection which this organisation has related to this scheme. Apart from that if you see this scheme is administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and implemented through LICN, CSE, E Governments Services India Limited as we saw. So do not confuse the facts. This is all about the discussion of this news article. To summarise we have seen in brief about how the Employee Providence Fund works and about Employees Providence Fund Organisation. We also saw a scheme for unorganised sector which is Pradhan Mantri Sram Yogi Mandan Yojana. Now have a look at this practice question. Let us move on to the next news article. This question is about Olive Ridley Turtle which has been framed based on this news article. This news article tells that the mass hatching of the Olive Ridley Turtle X has ended and lakhs of Olive Ridley hatchlings have started entering the sea at the Rushi Kulya Rukhari which is located at the Ganjam district in the state of Odisha. See this year has been a good year for Olive Ridley due to the COVID-19 lockdown. The inflow of tourists along the coasts of Odisha have reduced and even the local movement has reduced due to which there is a reduction of waste along the coasts. So there was an easier movement of the hatchlings to the sea naturally and hence it has been a good year for Olive Ridley Turtles. In this context know about Rushi Kulya Rukhari. It is a very important nesting site and if you see Odisha government has been planning for a long time to make this Rukhari as protected area and know that Rushi Kulya river flows through this Rukhari and this river is one of the major rivers in the state of Odisha. It covers the entire catchment area and the districts of Kandamal and Ganjam of Odisha. So this is in brief about the Rushi Kulya Rukhari. Now let us look at Olive Ridley Turtles from prelims point of view. See they are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles that are found in the world. It inhabits the warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and the Indian Oceans. There is also one more cousin to this turtle species which is the Kems Ridley Turtle. Together both these turtles are known for their unique mass nesting which is called as Arribada where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs. Now if you see Olive Ridley's face, serious threats across their migratory route, their habitat and nesting beaches due to various human activities like turtle unfriendly fishing practices or due to the development and exploitation of nesting beaches for ports, tourist centers etc. So these are some of the threats faced by the Olive Ridley Turtles. Despite these threats, every year you can find in news that Olive Ridley's come along the western and eastern coasts of India to lay eggs. Now let us look at the conservation status of Olive Ridley Turtle. They are listed as vulnerable under the IUCM Red List of Threatened Species. Though they are found in abundance, their numbers have declined over the past few years. Next if you see they are listed under Appendix I of Sites which means the international trade in these turtles and their products are banned. Next if you see at the national level, they are protected under the Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. So this is in brief about the Olive Ridley Turtle from Trillium's perspective. Now look at this question, it is a three statement question and you need to choose those statements or statements which are correct. Now even if you do not have any idea about Olive Ridley Turtle, try to take a guess and solve this question. Look at the first two statements, you can find that both of them are contradicting. If you have a general idea about the IUCM Red List of Threatened Species, only those animals whose numbers are very low and who face a major threat to their population are listed as critically endangered. But if you see here both the statements are contradicting, the first statement tells it is the most abandoned sea turtle whereas the second statement tells it is critically endangered. So either one of the statements only can be correct which means you can eliminate options A and D here. Here we saw that Olive Ridley Turtles are classified as vulnerable according to IUCM. So the second statement is incorrect which means you can eliminate option C, the correct answer is option B, one and three only. It is present in the Tropical Warm Waters of Pacific and Indian Ocean. So sometimes you do get such questions, you may always not be aware of the entire facts about a particular topic but try to read the statements if you are able to logically eliminate any statements like the ones here, there is a chance you might arrive at the right answer. This news article is about a recent report released by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime which I'll see some of the important points from this report that is discussed in this news article and then we'll see about the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime from Trillium's perspective. The syllabus that is relevant to the analysis of this news article is given here for your reference. See this UNODC has released a report which is titled as Synthetic Drugs in East and Southeast Asia. This report presents the most current information that is available on synthetic drug manufacture, trafficking and its demand in East and Southeast Asia with data from the year 2019. This report has mentioned that organized crime groups that are active in the East and Southeast Asia region have shown a high degree of flexibility to respond to shortages of supplies. Now why because at present if you see there are movement restrictions due to the COVID-19 pandemic across the world. So the usual methods of drug trafficking such as instant couriers and body packing through airports were all affected due to the restrictions and movements. This report tells that despite these restrictions the organized crime groups are able to adapt new methods and trends in the drug markets and to supply the drugs in this region. If you see this report has also mentioned about the ongoing expansion of methamphetamine which is a synthetic drug in this East and Southeast Asia region and about the consolidation of this methamphetamine drug production especially in the lower Mekong region. If you see this lower Mekong region which is roughly located in the tri-junction of three countries which are Nyanmar, Thailand and Lavo is known for its opium production for a long time and very recently it is also known for methamphetamine drug production which is a synthetic drug. So this report tells that additional efforts are needed at the regional, national and international level to carefully analyze the new methods to understand the changes in drug markets in the wake of COVID-19 pandemic. So this is in brief about this report from this just have an idea that methamphetamine is a synthetic drug and know about golden triangle it will be useful in your main section. Now let us discuss some facts about this United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime. See it was established in 1997 as a part of the United Nations reforms combining the previous United Nations Drug Control Program and the Center for International Crime Prevention. The headquarters is located Vienna so at present this United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime is the global leader in the fight against illicit drugs and international crime and also if you see in addition to this this office is also responsible for implementing the United Nations Lead Program on Terrorism. See it has 20 field offices that covers over 115 countries of the world. It works directly with the governments and the non-governmental organizations across countries and the field staff of this UNODC develop and implement drug control and crime prevention programs as per the required countries needs. Know that this office works to educate people throughout the world about the dangers of drug abuse and also to strengthen international action against illicit drug production and trafficking and drug related crimes. So to achieve all these aims UNODC has launched a range of initiatives including alternatives in the area of illicit drug crop cultivation then monitoring of illicit crops and the implementation of projects against money laundering. Also if you see this UNODC works to improve crime prevention and assist with criminal justice reform with the countries in order to strengthen the rule of law and promote stable and viable criminal justice systems and combat the growing threats of transnational organized crime and corruption. In 2002 the United Nations General Assembly approved an expanded program of activities for the terrorism prevention branch of this United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime. The activities focus on providing assistance to states on request in ratifying and implementing the universal legal instruments against terrorism. Now see this UNODC as a regional office for South Asia. It is located in New Delhi. This regional office is mandated to implement the goals of this United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime in six countries of this region. The six countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal and Sri Lanka. Additionally know that in May 2011 the Indian government ratified two UN conventions. One is the United Nations Convention against corruption and the next is the United Nations Convention against transnational organized crime and its three protocols. Both these conventions are related to this UNODC. This UNODC is mandated by its member states to assist in the implementation of both these conventions. So all these conventions are the crux behind the operation of this United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime. So this is in brief about United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime that you need to know from film's perspective and this is all about the discussion of this news article. To summarize we have seen about a report released by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime and in connection with this we saw about this United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime. Now have a look at this practice question. Let us move on to the next news article. This question is framed based on this news article about Bandipur National Park. Know that it is also a Tiger Reserve. So we will call it Bandipur Tiger Reserve. The question is Bandipur Tiger Reserve is located in which of the following states? Here the correct answer is Option A, Karnataka. Sometimes you do get such simple straightforward questions in UPSC Prelims. For example there was a question in 2019 prelims on Valley of Flowers National Park. So whenever you come across some important national parks or wildlife sanctuaries or tiger reserves or any other protected areas try to have an idea in which state it is located. Here know that this Bandipur Tiger Reserve is situated in the contiguous landscape which is spread across the two revenue districts of southern Karnataka which are Mysuru and Chamrajnagar. See it is quite distinctive landmass which is located at the tri-junction area of three states which are Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It is a part of western Ghats Tiger landscape. This consists of other tiger reserves such as Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, Nagarhole Tiger Reserve and Vayanad Wildlife Sanctuary. And if you see all these tiger reserves are also part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. This area has a huge number of tiger population and also ancient elephant population. And if you see the southeastern portion of this Bandipur Tiger Reserve is connected to the adjoining Tiger Landscape of Biligiri Ranganada Temple Tiger Reserve and with Malay Mahadeshwara Hills Wildlife Sanctuary and Kaveri Wildlife Sanctuary both which are located in Karnataka. And it is also connected to the Satyamangalam Tiger Reserve which is located in Tamil Nadu. So you can see it is quite a contiguous landscape which has a huge population of tigers. So this is in brief about Bandipur Tiger Reserve and its location. Now let us move on to the next news article. Now let us look at this question about National Green Tribunal which has been framed based on this news article. First let us look at this news article and then come back to the question. See this news article mentions that the Supreme Court did not interfere with an order passed by the National Green Tribunal on the Andhra Pradesh Gas League incident. As you know the styrene monomer gas was leaked at the LG Polymers factory located at Vishakapatnam. We discussed about this incident and about styrene in detail in our 12th May the Hindu news analysis. If you remember at that time we saw that the National Green Tribunal has ordered the company by taking Shivamurti cognizance of this case to deposit an initial amount of 50 crore rupees for causing damage to life, public health and environment. And along with this the National Green Tribunal also set up a five-member fact-finding committee to inquire into the incident. This committee is to specifically report on the sequence of events, then the causes of failure, then the authorities were responsible for this incident and then the extent of damage and also to suggest steps that are to be taken for the compensation of victims etc. This move was questioned by the company in Supreme Court saying that multiple committees had been formed by several bodies including the Andhra Pradesh High Court, the National Human Rights Commission and also by the central government along with the National Green Tribunal. So as of now the Supreme Court did not interfere with this order of NGT and these things will be considered when the cases comes to hearing before the Supreme Court. So this is in brief about this news article. Now here you need to focus about National Green Tribunal from exam perspective. So based on this we have framed this question. It is a three-statement question and you need to choose those statement or statements which are correct. Now before looking at the question let us look at National Green Tribunal. See it was established in the year 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010. So it is a statutory body because it has been established by a statute that is a law and note that this National Green Tribunal is a specialized judicial body that is equipped with expertise solely for the purpose of adjudicating environmental cases in India. It was established for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. It was also established to enforce any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property and for matters that are connected with it. Note that this National Green Tribunal has presence in five zones of India which are the north, central, east, south and west. The principal bench is located in the north zone which is headquartered at New Delhi. This tribunal is headed by the chairperson who sits in the principal bench and it has at least 10 but not more than 20 judicial members and at least 10 but not more than 20 expert members. So it consists of chairperson, judicial members and expert members. Next note that this National Green Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure of 1908 but it is guided by the principles of natural justice. And also note that the tribunal is mandated to make and end away for the disposal of applications or appeals. Finally, within six months of filing of the applications or appeals. Here one main thing that you need to know is that the tribunal's orders are binding and also this National Green Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. If this fails, the decision can be challenged before the Supreme Court within 90 days. So these are some of the important facts that you need to know about this National Green Tribunal. We saw about its functions, its presence, then about its composition and then about its procedure and finally we saw about the binding nature of its orders and the powers to review its decisions. With this information, now let us look at this question. Three statements are given and you need to choose those statements or statements which are correct. From our discussion, you can tell that the first statement is incorrect because it is a statutory body, not a constitutional body because it was formed just only in the year 2010 as per an Act of Parliament. So if the first statement is incorrect, you can eliminate options A and C. From B and D, you can tell that the second statement is correct. The orders of National Green Tribunal are binding. Now all you need to know is if the third statement is correct or not. Here the third statement is correct. The National Green Tribunal has powers to review its own decisions. So here the correct answer is option D, 2 and 3 only. This is all about the discussion of this news article based on which we have seen a question on National Green Tribunal. Now let us look at an editorial where the authors have criticized the actions of the Union government towards handling the COVID-19 pandemic. Here know that one of the authors is India's former Minister of Finance and Minister of External Affairs. So this criticism editorial will help you in generating some points which will be useful for your main exam. Now let us see some of the key points mentioned in this editorial. Here the authors mentioned that in tackling the COVID-19 crisis the central government has not done much to enable the states to benefit from cooperative federalism. If you see most of the states have shared their concerns and the inadequate fiscal support from the central government. We know that on 12th of May the Prime Minister announced a package of 20 lakh crore after continued demands from the industry for fiscal stimulus. However if you see the package came without mentioning anything specific for the standard migrant workers and for restructuring the micro, small and medium enterprises that is the MSMEs. Later it was the finance minister who has been giving the split up of this 20 lakh crore package. So in this editorial the authors have analysed the package, its benefit to various sectors and they have highlighted several issues. Here the authors have mainly focused on MSMEs. So let us look more on these MSMEs. Firstly the authors criticised that there are no immediate measures for reviving the MSMEs because they offer no major immediate concessions or they have not announced any soft loans for the MSMEs. And also the PEF and the tax provisions are quite complicated. Why because if you see many nations are providing tax relief for these businesses. For example countries like Japan have schemes to cover two thirds of the rent of the small businesses for up to six months. But we do not have any such concrete decision made by the central government. One announcement made by the central government was related to the redefinition of MSMEs. If you remember we have discussed this in our 14th May the Hindu news analysis. If you see the central government announced this as a major reform with regards to MSMEs but here the authors criticised that it cannot be called as a reform because it has been a long pending decision by the union government. And also if you see as an important part of this redefinition it involves banning the global companies for participating in the government tenders that are worth up to 200 crore rupees. Here the critics have pointed that more clarity is required on this area. For example how will the government define what is a global company and what is an Indian company. And this could also cause problems in certain specialised sectors where there are no real Indian suppliers. Here the authors tell that the government should have ideally begun consultations with parliamentarians, opposition parties and industry representatives to prepare a well thought out relief package to restart the economy but this did not happen. Similarly if you see the authors have also highlighted the issues that are faced by the middle class, by the farmers and by the migrants who are all not specifically addressed much by this fiscal stimulus package announced by the central government. Next if you see the authors describe the unfulfilled expectations from the central government firstly they tell that the government should have accorded priority to cutting out wasteful expenditure on projects like the central vista project that is to come up at the national capital and then the bullet train project announced by the government. Next the authors tell that the central government should have managed the available resources of the Reserve Bank of India then the employees state insurance corporation then the employees provident fund organisation and even the newly announced PM cares fund to help the poor but this was not done by the government. So these are some of the major criticisms towards the central government which have been laid on by the authors in this editorial. The authors conclude by saying that the government should follow a single policy namely the people first policy that is the focus should be on the people. They tell that the matters of lives and livelihoods should not be placed against each other in fact both of them have to be taken care simultaneously by the central government. So this is all about the discussion of this editorial here try to take up few criticisms which will be helpful in writing your main answers. Now let us move on to the next news article. This front page news article discusses about the fresh workplace guidelines issued by the union ministry of health and family welfare then if you see this news article also mentions about the Indian council of medical research where it is reviewing its Covid-19 treatment guidelines. The news is that ICMR may drop hydroxychloroquine to treat corona virus due to increasing doubt over its effectiveness. So ICMR is likely to include HIV combination drugs which are lopinavir and tritonavir and FDA approved i-virt mectin drug along with supplements like zinc and vitamin C in order to improve the immunity and possibly reduce the viral replication in its revised protocol. So here try to know about the Indian council of medical research because often you see about this ICMR in news if you remember before a couple of days back ICMR was also in news related to the rapid testing kits. So now let us see some facts about ICMR. See it is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination and promotion of biomedical research. It is one of the oldest medical research bodies in the world. It is located at New Delhi. See as early as 1911 Indian research fund association was set up. The objective was to sponsor and coordinate medical research in the then British India. Then after independence if you see 1949 this Indian research fund association was redesignated as Indian council of medical research and the scope of functions were expanded. At present if you see this ICMR is funded by the union government through the department of health research which comes under the ministry of health and family welfare. Note that there is a governing body of this council. It is presided over by the union health minister and this governing body is assisted in scientific and technical matters by a scientific advisory board. This scientific advisory board comprises of eminent experts from different biomedical disciplines. And this scientific advisory board is intern assisted by a series of scientific advisory groups, scientific advisory committees, expert groups, task forces, steering committees, etc. So all these evaluate and monitor different research activities of this ICMR. See ICMR's research priorities coincide with the national health priorities such as control and management of communicable diseases, fertility control, maternal and child health, then on mental health research and drug research including traditional remedies, etc. So all these are some of the national health priorities which are also the research priorities of ICMR. So the basic aim of ICMR is to reduce the total burden of disease and to promote health and well-being of the population of India. So this is in brief about ICMR that you need to know. Now if you look at this question it is a two statement question and you need to choose those statement or statements which are incorrect. Look at the first statement. It is a correct statement. It is one of the oldest medical research body in the world that works in the formulation, coordination of biomedical research. Now look at the second statement. This statement is incorrect because we saw that it is funded through the Department of Health Research that comes under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. So here the correct answer is option B, two only since you need to choose those statement or statements which are incorrect and the second statement is the incorrect statement. So this is in brief about ICMR. Now let us move on to the next news article. This news article is about the domicile law of the newly created union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. See some rules were notified by the central government on Monday that is on 18th of May related to the domicile of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. In this regard let us look what were the laws that existed before the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir and what are the new rules pertaining to the domicile. The syllabus that is relevant to the analysis of this news article is given here for your reference. When we say domicile law of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir, we are referring to an order and then rule here. One is the Jammu and Kashmir reorganization adaptation of state laws order of 2020 and the other is the Jammu and Kashmir grant of domicile certificate procedure rules of 2020. It is because the 2020 order defines who is a domicile and the 2020 rules provide the rules and procedure to obtain the domicile certificate. See these rules were notified very recently on 18th of May. Know that these rules just deal with the procedure while much of the legal changes related to this was made on 31st of March 2020 itself by the 2020 order. See this order amended several laws pertaining to the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. This order was made in exercise of powers under section 96 of the Jammu and Kashmir reorganization act of 2019. See this section 96 gives power to the central government to make adaptations and modifications either by way of repeal or amendment of any law that was made in the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir. Now based on that many laws were repealed and amended by the order. One such legislation amended by the 2020 order was the Jammu and Kashmir civil services decentralization and recruitment act of 2010. See this legislation which pertains to the Jammu and Kashmir prescribed the eligibility for appointments and promotions for posts of district, divisional and state cadre. See there was one principle condition prescribed by the 2010 act to be eligible for appointments in the posts of district, divisional and state cadre that is the person must be a permanent resident of the state as you can see here. Now this term the permanent resident of the state was deleted by the amendment that was made by the 2020 order in the context of above three categories of posts. For district and divisional cadre posts the term permanent resident of the state was replaced with the domicile of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and for the state cadre posts the provision of permanent residence of the state was simply removed. Now this order also defined who is a domicile. So who is the domicile of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. The domicile person was resided for a period of 15 years in this union territory or the person was studied for a period of 7 years and has appeared in class 10th or 12th examination in an educational institution that is located in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and not only that the person who was registered as a migrant by the relief and rehabilitation commissioner for migrants in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir is also a domicile of this union territory of Jammu and Kashmir and in addition that children of those central government officials, all India services officers officials of public sector undertaking etc who have served in Jammu and Kashmir for a total period of 10 years are also deemed to be the domicile of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. See earlier the term permanent residence for the state of Jammu and Kashmir was defined in general in part 3 of the Jammu and Kashmir constitution and it is given here for a reference. Now if you go through this you will be able to understand the domicile criteria as widen the eligible persons by including registered migrants as well. So as you can see many important changes were made on the 31st of March 2020 itself regarding the domicile by the Jammu and Kashmir reorganization adaptation of state laws order of 2020 and now recently the Jammu and Kashmir grant of domicile certificate procedure rules 2020 was notified it was notified in exercise of the powers under article 309 of Indian constitution and as per section 15 of the Jammu and Kashmir civil services decentralization and recruitment act of 2010. You just have an idea that article 309 is about the recruitment and conditions of service of persons serving the union or a state. As per the 2010 amended act and as per the 2020 rules any person who fulfills the conditions we already saw for being a domicile of the Jammu and Kashmir is eligible to get the domicile certificate. So from this you can conclude one thing that initially it was the state government which had the power or say regarding who is the domicile of Jammu and Kashmir but as per the Jammu and Kashmir reorganization act of 2019 and as per the enabling laws and orders now the power is vested with the central government. So this is one key point that you need to know. Now who will issue the domicile certificate in Jammu and Kashmir? See the of a particular territorial jurisdiction shall be the competent authority for issuing the domicile certificate. See as per the amended 2010 act the government of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir may notify any other officer also to be competent authority for issuing the domicile certificate. And therefore for migrants and children of migrants the competent authority to issue domicile certificate is the given rehabilitation commissioner for migrants. Also know that under the 2020 rules there are certain provisions which ensures that the competent authority shall issue the domicile certificate within a certain timeframe or they are subjected to penalty as you can see here. So the rules make sure that if any person who fulfills the criteria for the domicile of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir will definitely be granted a domicile certificate. So this is the background issue that you need to know regarding this news article. Now today's news article tells that the political parties of Jammu and Kashmir rejected this 2020 order that is the Jammu and Kashmir reorganization adaptation of state laws order and the 2020 rules which is the Jammu and Kashmir grant of domicile certificate procedure rules. The reason they state is that these laws are aimed at changing the demography of the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Now why we are saying this because the changes makes the registered migrants also as the domicile of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. So further complicates the Jammu and Kashmir issue and in addition to this the political parties have also criticized that the amended domicile law was made an exercise of power under the Jammu and Kashmir reorganization act of 2019 as we saw already and if you see this act has been challenged in the number of petitions before the Supreme Court. So according to the political parties the government of India is under an obligation to either desist or abstain from exercising the powers under this Jammu and Kashmir reorganization act of 2019 since it stands challenged in the court of law. So what they tell is that the government should have ideally abstained from the power to promulgate domicile law and rules. So these are the changes that were made by the central government related to the domicile law in the union with the editorial of Jammu and Kashmir and its subsequent reaction by the political parties in Jammu and Kashmir. So let us wait and see how things turn out because this is an evolving news. With this we come to the end of the analysis of all the news articles taken up for today's discussion. Now let us look at other practice questions for some of the topics which we saw. This first question is on employees provident fund. It is a three statement question and you need to choose those statement or statements correct. Look at the first statement. It tells that it is a retirement saving scheme applicable to both organized and unorganized sectors. This statement is incorrect because employees provident fund is applicable only to organized sector or organized workforce. Now look at the second statement. It tells that under EPF scheme employers contribution is double the contribution paid by the employee. This statement is also incorrect because employers contribution is equal to the contribution paid by employee. And now look at the third statement. It tells that the employees provident fund is administered by the Ministry of Finance. This statement is also incorrect. We saw that there is central board of trustees which is a statutory body constituted under the provisions of the employees provident funds in miscellaneous provisions act of 1952. This central board of trustees administers the contributions that are accumulated under the employees provident fund scheme and this central board of trustees is assisted by employees provident fund organization. And this employees provident fund organization comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Labor and Employment. So it is not the Ministry of Finance. So here all the three statements are incorrect and you have to choose those statement or statements which are incorrect. So here the correct answer is option D, 1, 2 and 3. Next let us look at this question on United Nations Office on Drug Sim Crime. It is again a three statement question and you need to choose those statement or statements from the options given here you can tell that the first statement is correct. The United Nations Office on Drug Sim Crime develops and implements actions against illicit drug production and trafficking and drug related crime. The second statement is also correct here. It works to improve crime prevention and combat the growing threats of transnational organized crime and corruption. Now look at the third statement. It tells that in 2002 the scope of United Nations Office on Drug Sim Crime had expanded to fight against terrorism and the third statement is also correct. So here the correct answer is option D, 1, 2 and 3 since the question demands you to choose those statement or statements which are correct. With this we come to the end of the analysis of all the news articles taken up for today's discussion and also the practice questions discussion session. If you like the video press the like button, comment and share and do subscribe to Shankar IAS Academy YouTube channel for latest videos and updates. Stay focused and motivated friends. Thank you.