 Good evening aspirants, welcome to the Hindi News Analysis by Shankar IAS Academy for the date 30th July 2019. The list of articles that has been chosen for today's analysis has been provided here for your reference along with the page numbers of Chennai, Bengaluru, Delhi and Tiruvannandapura Medicines. The link for the handwritten notes has been provided in the description box below and also in the comments section. Let us move on to our first article analysis. This discussion is based on two articles which is about geographical indication tag. The areas under which the discussion can be linked to the syllabus has been given here for your reference. The news article states that the Kodekanal Malai Pundu or Kodekanal Hill Garlic has been granted the geographical indication tag that is the GI tag. The GI tag has been granted by the geographical indications registry. So now let us first understand what is this GI tag. Mankind has a desire for quality and genuine premium products such as silk, cotton and spices. These products have distinct characteristics and they originate from a particular region. These distinct characteristics were the identification and it became so important that those particular regions started specializing in producing these unique products. This led to identifying such goods as originating from a particular region and over a period of time those products became renowned or famous globally. So demand for such products started rising among the consumers. Now this demand gave rise for counterfeit or fake products. These fake products began to damage the image of genuine products. So the genuine products have to be protected by safeguarding the interests of the producers and also the consumers. So this protection led to the evolution and conceptualization of geographical indications. So the trade related aspects of intellectual property rights agreement that is the TRIPS agreement defines geographical indications as the indications which identify a good or product as originating in the territory of a country or a region or a locality in that territory where a given quality reputation or other characteristic of the good is essentially attributable to its geographical origin. So based on this importance of geographical origin India enacted the geographical indications of goods registration and protection act of 1999. This act came into force with effect from September 2003. The objective of the act is three fold. Firstly it is the specific law which governs the geographical indications of goods in the country which could adequately protect the interests of producers of such goods. Then secondly it excludes unauthorized persons from misusing geographical indications and to protect consumers from deception or duplication. And then thirdly to promote goods bearing Indian geographical indications in the export market. Now based on this act geographical indication means an indication which identifies such goods as agricultural goods, natural goods or manufactured goods as originating or manufactured in the territory of a country or a region or a locality in that territory. Then such goods should have the given quality reputation or other characteristic which is essentially attributable to its geographical origin. Then in case where such goods are manufactured goods then one of the activities of either the production or processing of that good or preparation of that good that is concerned should take place in that territory, region or locality. Here the goods not only include agricultural, natural or manufactured goods but also any goods of handicrafts or goods of industry and it also includes foodstuff. So what is the benefit of registration of geographical indications? Firstly it confers legal protection to geographical indications in India. Then it prevents unauthorized use of a registered geographical indication by others. Then it provides legal protection to Indian geographical indications which in turn boosts exports and finally it promotes economic prosperity of producers of goods produced in a geographical territory. Now also know that the registration of a geographical indication is valid for a period of 10 years only and after that it has to be renewed. Now some examples of Indian geographical indications include Basmati rice, Darjeeling tea, Kanjipuram silk saree, Nagpur orange, Kolapuri chappal, Bikaneri bhujia, Agra peta etc. Now in this list Kodekanal malai poondu or Kodekanal hill garlic has also been added. Now in this malai means hill and poondu means garlic that is why its English name is Kodekanal hill garlic. Now this is scientifically known as allium satayvam. This particular garlic is known for its medicinal and preservative properties. It has antioxidant and antimicrobial potential. Antioxidant means a substance that inhibits or prevents oxidation especially the one that is used to counteract the deterioration of stored food products. So antioxidant means it prevents the stored food products from deterioration. Then antimicrobial means that it is active against microbes. This antioxidant and antimicrobial potential is attributed to the presence of higher amount of organosulfur compounds, phenols and flavonoids as compared to other garlic varieties. Now this Kodekanal malai poondu is grown in the Kodekanal hills in the Jindikal district of Tamil Nadu. It is white or pale yellow in color and each garlic bulb is shaped like a raindrop and it weighs around 20 to 30 grams on an average. Now the hill attitude and the mystic conditions and the soil which is prevailing in the Kodekanal region are responsible for its medicinal property and the long storage shelf life of the garlic. Now if you see in India garlic is planted as both kharif and rabi crop and it totally depends on the regions like it is planted as a rabi crop in Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Punjab, Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Bengal and other hilly regions. And it is planted as both kharif and rabi crop in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. Like this the Kodekanal hill garlic is also planted as a rabi crop and as well as a kharif crop that is it is planted in September to October and also again in April to May. Now the cultivators of this garlic conventionally use this for maintaining their general health and also as medicines for their common ailments like gastric troubles, headaches, ear pain, asthma, tiredness, indigestion, body pain etc. Now this is with respect to the Kodekanal malai pondu or Kodekanal hill garlic. Now there is one another article with respect to GI tag. This GI tag is given to the Roshgulla of Odisha. Whether you pronounce it as Roshgulla or Rasgulla we know that it is a very popular dessert. This Odisha Roshgulla is a sweet from the state of Odisha which is made of Chenna that is cottage cheese that is cooked in a sugar syrup and we all know that it is very soft and very juicy and they say that it is also non chewy in consistency and it can be swallowed without teeth pressure. Now the specialty of this Odisha Roshgulla is the color development which is very specific. Without the addition of external color various intensely colored Roshgullas are prepared using the principle of caramelization of sugar with specific methods of preparation. Now this GI tag has been given to Odisha after a year long debate between West Bengal and Odisha over where the sweet had originated because we know that both the states are known for the sweet and they both claimed for the GI tag but in 2017 itself West Bengal secured the GI tag for its Bangla Roshgulla. So remember that two varieties of Roshgulla have been given GI tags one is from West Bengal and the other is from the state of Odisha. With this we have come to the end of this article analysis. The displayed practice question will be discussed in the last session. Moving on to the next news article discussion which is about All India Tiger Estimation of 2018. The syllabus relevant for the analysis of this news article has been highlighted here for your reference. Yesterday that is 29th of July 2019 is remembered as International Tiger Day. On the International Tiger Day the Indian Prime Minister has released the results of the fourth cycle of All India Tiger Estimation. This fourth cycle is called as All India Tiger Estimation of 2018. This tiger estimation is also referred as Tiger Census. The news article mentions that this tiger estimation is a quadrennial census. Quad means four. So quadrennial census means the census is released once in four years. Now this fourth cycle of estimation was collected using an android based application called as M Stripes. M Stripes stands for Monitoring System for Tigers Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. The most important information about the result of the estimation of 2018 is that India now has almost 3000 Tigers. To be exact it is 2967 Tigers. But if you see in the front page image of newspaper it is mentioned as 2976 but the government website for project Tiger says 2967 only. So please correct this estimation. Now there is an increase of around 33 percent over the number of Tigers estimated by the All India Tiger Estimation of 2014. This increase of 36 percent is the highest recorded increase between the cycles. The number of Tigers mentioned in the Tiger Estimation of 2018 is more than 110 percent than the number of Tigers estimated by All India Tiger Estimation of 2006. So if you consider 2014 estimation now there is a 33 percent increase. But if we consider 2006 estimation it is 110 percent increase. Now according to the recent Tiger Estimation Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of Tigers which is followed by Karnataka and Uttarakhand. These three states have around 50 percent of the overall Tiger population of India. The news article mentions that among the Tiger reserves the Pench Tiger Reserve in the state of Madhya Pradesh has registered the highest number of Tigers. Now according to these status of Tigers in India 2018 which was published by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change the estimation was made by dividing the Tiger bearing landscapes into five major landscapes. They are Shivalli Gangetic Plains, Central India and Eastern Guards, then Western Guards and then North Eastern Hills and Brahmaputra Flood Plains and then finally Sundarbans. In these five landscapes the maximum number of Tigers are found in Central India and Eastern Guards and this is followed by Western Guards. Then these landscapes the least number of Tigers is found in Sundarbans. Now one of the newspaper articles mentions that Pench Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh is a well-managed Tiger Reserve in India. Now during the yesterday's release of all India Tiger population the Prime Minister has also released the report of fourth cycle of the management effectiveness evaluation of Tiger reserves. According to this report Pench Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh was the top performer with respect to the management of Tiger reserves. That is why the news article mentions Pench Tiger as a well-managed Tiger Reserve in India. Pench Tiger Reserve has scored the highest because of its management plans such as having the season-wise biodiversity plans, then having flying squads and carrying out tactical patrolling and this is for the purpose of managing security of Tigers and to prevent man-tiger conflict. Then there were regular meetings with local communities with respect to the Tiger conservation so that the local communities can act as protectors of Tigers. One another reason why the Pench Tiger Reserve authorities have been judged as a number one managers of Tiger Reserve is that they have utilized the funds collected from tourism for conservation purposes. Now let us see the Tiger Reserve that has seen the highest improvement since 2014. The highest improvement is seen in the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve in the state of Thabiladu. It was awarded the highest increment in management since the last cycle. We will see what are the special measures that helped the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve to back the award for the highest increment or the highest improvement in managing in the next article analysis. Now let us see the states where the population of Tiger has declined. These states are Chathisgarh and Mizoram. The population of Tiger has not seen much increase in the state of Odisha which means the population is almost stagnant or it is constant in this state. This is because the number of Tigers in Odisha in 2014 estimation was 28 and even in the latest estimation of 2018 it is 28 only. That is why we are saying the Tiger population is almost stagnant or constant. Then in all the other states the Tiger population has increased with respect to the 2014 estimation. With this we have come to the end of this article analysis. This news article is about the Tiger Reserve that has been awarded for the highest increment or improvement in the management of Tiger reserves. This Tiger Reserve is the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve in the state of Thabiladu. The news article mentions that the Tiger Reserve has 28 villages inside the Tiger Reserve and more than 270 villages in the border of this reserve. So this makes the local communities in these villages to depend on the forest resources in the Tiger Reserve area. In some cases the dependency leads to the man-tiger conflict. So the authorities of the Tiger Reserve have to reduce the dependency of the local population on the forest resources particularly firewood. Therefore to reduce the dependency on the firewood the authorities implemented an initiative to provide LPG connections to all households in the forest dependent villages. This has made the villagers not to go into the reserve for the collection of firewood. The authorities have also involved the youths of the villages to act as anti-poaching watchers. This has protected the tigers from poaching by the humans. Poaching means hunting or killing of an animal illegally. We can also see instances of poaching to illegally sell the skin of tiger in illegal markets. And tigers are also killed for other illegal benefits also. Now the efforts which were taken by the authorities have led the Tiger Reserve to achieve the maximum improvements in the management of the Tiger Reserve and to increase the population of tigers also. The news article reports that there was an annual increase of 30% in the number of tigers in the Satya Mangalam Tiger Reserve. You may highlight these initiatives to reduce the dependence of firewood and also for conservation of species and also as a measure to prevent man-animal conflict. That is all about this news article. Let us move to the next article which is related to the economic value of tiger reserves in India. This article states that if we assess the cumulative benefits of tiger reserves based on their economic value, it will come to a range between 4200 crores to 16000 crores. The news article also talks about the coordinating role played by the Wildlife Institute of India in the tiger estimation. A tiger task force was appointed by the then Prime Minister in 2005. This task force has mandated a four-yearly monitoring of tiger populations across India. The estimation or the monitoring has to be based on the methodology developed by the Wildlife Institute of India. In order to carry out the four-yearly monitoring, a national assessment called as the status of tigers, co-predators, prey and their habitat is conducted every four years since 2006. The recent All India Tiger Estimation of 2018 is titled as status of tigers, co-predators and prey in India 2018. This assessment has been done by the National Tiger Conservation Authority in collaboration with the state forest departments and also with the non-governmental organization which work for the conservation of tigers. The assessment process is coordinated by the Wildlife Institute of India. Wildlife Institute of India was established in the year 1982. Also know that it is an autonomous institution of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. With this we have come to the end of analysis of these articles. This practice question will be discussed in the last session. Moving on to the next article discussion which is about the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code Amendment Bill of 2019. The areas under which the discussion can be linked to the syllabus has been given here for your reference. Now this Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code Amendment Bill of 2019 will amend the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code of 2016 that is IBC 2016. The article states that the amendment bill has been successfully passed in Rajasabha. The amendment seeks to end the ambiguity or doubts in the IBC of 2016 and it also seeks to streamline the resolution process. Now let us first understand what is Insolvency, Bankruptcy, Resolution, etc. Insolvency is a financial state. However, Bankruptcy is a legal procedure. Here insolvency is a state where the liabilities of an individual or an organization exceed its asset and they are unable to raise enough cash to meet its obligations or debts when they are due for the payment of the debt. Technically insolvency could be a financial state when the value of total assets of an individual or a group exceeds its liabilities. Now this insolvency leads to the state of default. The default can happen due to financial failure or even due to business failure. So a person who is facing insolvency needs to take corrective actions to rectify the situations to avoid possible bankruptcy. This can be done in many ways like generating surplus cash or by minimizing the overhead costs and it can also be done by negotiating the repayment terms with the lenders. Now the bankruptcy is the next state of insolvency where an individual or partnership firm is declared as incapable of paying up his debt or incapable of paying up his bills at any time in the present as well as in the foreseeable future. This is declared by the relevant authorities under a specified law. Now in this case it is specified by the IBC Code of 2016. Now generally it is said that failure of resolution process leads to bankruptcy. So now what is this resolution? Resolution refers to a plan proposed by any authorized person or authorized entity for enabling the overdue payments of a corporate debtor. Now this will be done through restructuring of the entity or even through partial payments. It will be done while allowing the corporate debtor to continue in the business. Now the bill seeks to streamline this resolution process. The bill will also amend seven sections of the insolvency and bankruptcy code of 2016. It is aimed to remove the existing ambiguities in the act and it will facilitate the smooth conduct of corporate business and it will also facilitate a smooth insolvency process. One of the most important provision of the bill passed is that it gives home buyers the status of a creditor that is the status of a lender. So if the housing project goes bust that is if the project is forced to shut down then the buyers will have a say in the resolution. So this gives the buyers an upper hand when a new company is bidding for that particular project. The bill also fixes a mandatory deadline of 330 days for completing the resolution process but if you see before this the time period for resolution process was 180 days with an additional 90 days given if the resolution is not completed in that 180 days. Now this bill fixes a mandatory deadline of 330 days from the commencement of insolvency resolution process. Now the finance minister has said that these amendments are aimed at minimizing ambiguities within the act. The finance minister has referred to SS Steel Insolvency case. In this case the lenders or financial creditors and vendors or operational creditors were treated equally by the bankruptcy code for distribution of money collected by the auction of that firm but this was not the intention of the act. The act actually aimed to give primacy or priority to financial creditors over operational creditors. A lender or financial creditor is a person or an institution that lends money to the company for its functioning. If you see according to IBC an operational creditor or a vendor is a person to whom an operational debt is owed or a person to whom such a debt has been legally assigned to. This operational debt is the claim made in respect of the provisions of goods and services including employment to the company. In simple terms we can say they have offered goods and services to the company and the company owes them debt. So this is the operational debt. Now under this bill the government has extended indemnity or protection to successful bidders of companies. The companies that have defaulted on loans. This means that the government would not initiate any criminal proceedings against those who buy out a bankrupt company. Also the government will not raise any tax claim against them after the implementation of that resolution plan. Under the IBC loan defaulting companies are auctions and the successful bidder also called as a resolution applicant takes over the firm. That is the successful bidder takes over the firm. This bill gives great relief to the bidders because now they do not have to face any criminal charges or tax claims for the actions done by the original defaulters. But here you have to note one point that the criminal matters would continue to be pursued against the individuals in the loan defaulting company and it will not be continued against the company itself or even on the bidders of that company. Then the government also plans to implement insolvency regulations for individuals who give personal guarantees for loan taken by defaulting companies. This will be done in phases. Now this would ensure that the guarantors who gave the personal guarantees will not be escaped from the insolvency and bankruptcy code. Now let us see some of other important changes that have been made to the act. The bill has clarified that the restructuring of the corporate sector can be done by a merger, amalgamation or demerger. Here merger is a process when two or more companies are combined together to form a new company or an existing company and amalgamation is a type of merger in which a completely new entity is formed. But demerger is a process in which a big company is separated into small companies. Then as we saw earlier the bill mandates that a corporate insolvency resolution process shall be mandatorily completed within 330 days from the insolvency commencement date. Then the amendment gave the committee of creditors that is COC explicit authority and this explicit authority is over the distribution of proceeds or money in the resolution process. Now here committee of creditors is a committee consisting of financial creditors or lenders who form the decision making body of the company. Now this amendment also gives primacy to the financial creditors. With this we have come to the end of this article analysis. Moving on to the last discussion for the day which is about the response given by the National Commission of Minorities to a particular petition filed at the Supreme Court. This petition was filed to declare Hindus as minority in those states where they are not a majority. The syllabus relevant to this analysis of this news article has been highlighted here for your reference. If you see the title of this news article it has a word remit. Normally it means paying money or revoking punishment. But in this context it means scope or jurisdiction. That is the National Commission of Minorities draws its jurisdiction with respect to notifying a particular community as minority. The article states that the National Commission for Minorities or NCM has refused to entertain a request to declare Hindus as a minority community in those states where they do not form a majority of the population. The petition requested to frame guidelines to identify minorities at the state level or to declare Hindus a minority in states where they do not form a majority. The petition requested to frame these guidelines using the powers under Section 2 Clause C of the National Commission for Minorities Act of 1992. But if you see the Section 2 Clause C of the Act says that minority means a community notified as minority by the central government. The National Commission for Minorities was directed by the Supreme Court to consider the representation given by the petitioner in February 2019. The National Commission for Minorities has formed a subcommittee for this purpose. In the report of the subcommittee NCM has stated that it has no such power to declare any community as minority. It replied that Section 2 Clause C of the NCM Act of 1992 itself states that the power to declare a community as minority lies with the central government. This power of the central government cannot be usurped by or cannot be claimed by the National Commission of Minorities. The report of NCM committee highlighted the Supreme Court's judgment in the year 1999 in the case law of Baal Patil versus Union of India case. In this case law, the Supreme Court has said that the constitutional role of minority commissions is to create social conditions and such social conditions in future should create an environment where there is no need to protect the rights of minorities. So, NCM's role is to maintain the unity and integrity of India by eliminating the need for identifying communities as majority and minority. This means that the minority commissions should not work to declare communities as majority and minority. Rather, it should work to establish a social environment where the rights of vulnerable communities are ensured and they are protected. If minority status is given only on the basis of religion, numerical strength or power, then different communities would compete with each other for the minority status. This would result in ever going tensions and it will create conflicts between different communities. This will weaken the idea of the unity and the integrity of India as a nation, which was envisaged by our forefathers and by our freedom fighters. Now, this is about the article. Now, let us see few facts about the National Commission for Minorities. Firstly, it is a statutory body because it was set up under the Statute National Commission for Minorities Act of 1992. This means it is not a constitutional body. To be declared as a constitutional body, the commission has to be established by the constitution. So, remember NCM is a statutory body and not constitutional body. If we see the composition of the commission includes the chairperson, vice chairperson and five other members. The five other members and the chairperson should be from minority communities. All the members are nominated by the central government from amongst persons of eminence, ability and integrity. In India, totally six religious communities have been notified as minority communities by the central government. They are Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Parsis, Buddhists and Jains. Also know that the Jains were notified as minority by the central government in the year 2014 only. The NCM evaluates the progress of development of minorities under the union and the states. It has to monitor the working of the safeguards provided in the constitution and the laws enacted by both the parliament and state legislature. It has to make recommendations to both the central and state governments for the effective implementation of safeguards for the protection of the interests of minorities. One of the functions under section 9 G of NCM Act is to suggest appropriate measures in respect of any minority to be undertaken by the central government or the state government. Now, while exercising this function, the National Commission for Minorities may suggest the central government to notify Hindus as minorities in the states where they are not majority. But the National Commission itself cannot notify any particular community as minority. So, with this, we come to the end of our article analysis sessions. This practice question will be discussed in the next session. The next and the final session is the practice questions discussion session. The first question is based on geographical indications tag. Two statements have been given. We have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states it is a sign which is used in the course of trade and it distinguishes goods or services of one enterprise from those of other enterprises. Now, this statement is wrong because this is the definition of a trademark, but a trademark is different from geographical indication. As we discussed during the analysis, geographical indication is an indication used to identify goods having special characteristics originating from a definite geographical territory, which means it does not distinguishes goods and services of one enterprise from other enterprises. So, this statement is wrong. The second statement states the controller general of patents designs and trademarks is the registrar of geographical indications. We did not discuss about the registrar of geographical indications during our discussion, but know that the controller general of patents designs and trademarks is the registrar of geographical indications. And also know that the office of controller general of patents designs and trademarks comes under the department for promotion of industry and internal trade, which comes under the ministry of commerce and industry. So, this statement is correct. The question asks for the correct statements. As statement two is the correct answer, the final answer to this question is option B, two only. Now, this question is based on match the following format. One side geographical indication has been given and the other side states have been given. The first geographical indication given here is Bangalore-Roshgulla. Now, after looking at this, you may get confused between the option 1 and option 3 because these two states are known for Roshgulla. But remember that the GI tag of Bangalore-Roshgulla was given to the state of West Bengal. So, obviously, A should match with 3. So, we can directly eliminate options A and option B. Now, if you see option C and D, you can say that Patachitra is from the state of Odisha. So, that is correct. Now, we have to say whether Basmati rice is from Assam or from Himachal Pradesh or we can say either Muga silk is from the state of Assam or from Himachal Pradesh. Now, normally the geographical indication of a good is given for a particular state for one state or two states. But in the case of Basmati, if you see more than two states have been given the GI tag like the state of Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir. So, this means Basmati has got the GI tag from Himachal Pradesh also. So, the correct answer here is B for 4. If you see A for 3 should be there, B for 4 should be there and C for 1 should be there which is there in the option C. So, this is the correct answer to this question. Now, this next question is based on all India Tiger estimation. Three statements have been given. We have to choose the correct statement. Now, first statement states it is a national assessment that is conducted by the National Tiger Conservation Authority in collaboration with the state forest departments and conservation NGOs coordinated by the Wildlife Institute of India. Now, this statement is correct. We discussed this during our analysis. Now, if you look at the next statement, it states the assessment will be conducted once in four years. Now, during our analysis we discussed that the assessment is called as a quadrennial assessment which means it is conducted once in four years because here quad means four. So, this statement is also correct. Now, if you look at the third statement, it states there was a continuous increase in the number of tigers in every successive cycle of assessment. Now, this statement is also correct because during analysis we saw that there was a continuous increase in the tiger population with every cycle of assessment like in the year 2006 it was 1411 and in the year 2010 it was 1706 and in the year 2014 it was 2226 and then finally in the year 2018 assessment it was 2967. So, this means there is a continuous increase. So, this statement is also correct. As the three statements given here are correct, the final answer to this question is option D 1, 2 and 3. Now, this question is also based on tiger only. The question states the Royal Bengal Tiger is found throughout India except so, we have to eliminate the option where Royal Bengal Tiger is found because the question says except. So, the correct answer is the place where Royal Bengal Tiger is not found. Now, here the correct answer is actually northwestern India. In the northwestern part of India, Royal Bengal Tiger is not found. Now, we should know that there are eight races of tiger species which is called as Pantera Tigris and the Indian race is called as the Royal Bengal Tiger. The government sources mentioned that this tiger is found throughout India except the northwestern region of India. Now, this next question is based on National Commission for Minorities. Here two statements have been given, we have to choose the correct statement. First statement states it is a statutory body constituted under the National Commission for Minorities Act of 1992. Now, we know that this is a correct statement. We call a commission as a statutory body when it is constituted under a statute or a law and we call a body as a constitutional body when it is constituted or when it is mentioned in the constitution. So, as the National Commission for Minorities is constituted based on National Commission for Minorities Act of 1992, it is a statutory body. So, this statement is correct. If you look at the next statement, the commission can suggest appropriate measures in respect of any minority to be undertaken by the central government or the state governments. Now, this is the main function of the National Commission for Minorities. So, this statement is also correct. So, the correct and final answer to this question is Option C both 1 and 2. With this, we have come to the end of today's sessions. If you like the video, don't forget to like, comment and share and do subscribe to Shankar IAS Academy for more updates related to civil service examination preparation.