 Welcome to the Hindu news analysis for the date 19th of March 2020. The list of news articles taken up for today's analysis is displayed here along with the page numbers of five different editions. The handwritten notes in PDF format and the timestamping of all the news articles taken up for today's analysis is available in the description section as well as in the comment section for the benefit of the smartphone users. Let us now start our analysis. Now let us look at an editorial which is based on the recent move of the government regarding the former Chief Justice of India Justice Ranjan Gogai. See he has been nominated as a member to the Council of States that is the Rajya Sabha. So in this discussion let us see the constitutional provisions based on which he has been nominated and then we shall see the editorial where the author has expressed his opinion on this move of the government. The syllabus that is relevant to the analysis of this editorial is given here for your reference. See actually former Chief Justice of India Justice Ranjan Gogai has been nominated by the President based on the constitutional provisions. If you see all the news articles it mentions that he has been nominated by the government. Now here you need to have a clarity because as per article 74 of Indian Constitution the President exercises his functions on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. And as per article 80 of Indian Constitution the ex-Chief Justice of India has been nominated as a member to the Rajya Sabha. Now according to this article 80 clause 1A 12 members are to be nominated by the President in the Council of States or Rajya Sabha in accordance with the provisions of article 80 clause 3. Now this article 80 clause 3 mentions that the members to be nominated by the President shall consist of persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of matters regarding literature, science, art and social service. So based on these provisions the former Chief Justice of India has been nominated to Rajya Sabha. So in this context the author has given his opinion on the nature and independence of Justice Ranjan Gogai as Chief Justice of India. So let us look at this editorial now. Firstly the author notes that he seemed to be independent. There was an occasion in 2018 just before his elevation as the Chief Justice of India Ranjan Gogai eloquently declared that the country needs not only noisy journalists and independent judges but even independent journalists and noisy judges. So based on this perspective everyone expected that as Chief Justice of India Ranjan Gogai would be robustly independent in the interests of justice and equity and he will also uphold the rule of law. But according to the author there was a virtual collapse of his independence after becoming the Chief Justice of India. Here the author feels that the former Chief Justice of India's judgments have far reaching political consequences and majority of them pleased the present government. To prove this point the author has referred to certain judgments that were delivered by Justice Ranjan Gogai when he was the Chief Justice of India. The first such judgment was the Ayodhya judgment which was delivered shortly before his retirement. We know that the verdict determined that the disputed land should be given to Hindus for constructing a temple to Lord Ram while Muslims would be given land elsewhere within Ayodhya to construct a mosque. So this is the first instance. Secondly the author notes that during his tenure as Chief Justice of India Justice Gogai also presided over and pushed through the national register of citizens in the state of Assam. We know that this exercise has excluded more than 19 lakh people and it has also created a huge humanitarian crisis. The next if you see there was a judgment delivered on Sabarimala temple review. This judgment by the constitutional bench of Supreme Court held that excluding menstruating women from entering the temple was discriminatory and therefore it is against constitutional morality. Also if you see the bench headed by Justice Gogai referred this issue to a larger bench to arrive at a conclusion. Now the author tells that this was an unwarranted move that is an unnecessary move. So based on all these judgments the author forms an opinion that the former Chief Justice of India's judgments were favouring the government and only less number of politically sensitive cases were decided against the government's wishes. And along with all these judgments the author points out to an issue where the government blindly favoured the former Chief Justice of India the issue was regarding the allegations of sexual harassment on Justice Ranjan Gogai. Let us look at this incident in brief. See a female staffer accused him of harassment soon after he became the Chief Justice of India. But rather than investigating the matter immediately she was dismissed from service. And along with her some of her family members like her brother-in-law and even her husband were also suspended on baseless charges. The most end raging part of this issue was that Justice Gogai sat as a judge in this case where he himself was the accused. Since this was opposed by many sections of society the former Chief Justice of India appointed an in-nose committee which was headed by the present Chief Justice of India. But if you see because of the ordeal the female staffer later withdrew from the panel probe. So based on this background only the author has analysed Justice Ranjan Gogai's nomination to the upper house. For analysing it the author is referring to the restatement of values of judicial life guidelines. See this set of guidelines was adopted at Chief Justice's conference in May 1997. These guidelines restated the pre-existing and the universally accepted norms, guidelines and convention that indicate the high values of judicial life which is to be followed by the judges during their tenure of office. And also if you see these guidelines serve as a guide that has to be observed by the judges and it is essential for an independent, strong and respected judiciary so that the judges can impartially deliver the justice. Know that the set of guidelines is basically a 16-point code of conduct for the judges and these points are not meant to be exhaustive but it is illustrative of what is expected of a judge. Now if you look at 0.6 of these guidelines a judge should practice a degree of aloofness consistent with the dignity of his office. We know that the word aloof means being detached. So this aloofness is a most essential trait which is required in a judge and it is to be practiced with respect to politicians or functionaries of the government by the judge. Next if you see there is one more interesting point which is point number seven. This mentions a judge shall not hear and decide a matter in which a member of his family, a close relation or a friend is concerned. But you would have heard about instances where judges invite politicians to their personal functions or sometimes even they praise the politicians in public and call them for personal favours. So we can see that here there is no state of aloofness as expected by the guidelines. You may ask that whether a judge cannot have a friend who is a politician. The point here is not having friends in political class but when they have such friends it is necessary on the part of judges to not hear and decide cases of those politicians who are their personal friends. Now why the author is stressing on this point because this code of conduct between the judge and the so-called politician friend also lays the basis on how the judges post retirement conduct will be. For example, there is a judge who has delivered a verdict in a politically sensitive case and that verdict is in favour of a particular political party or politician. Then soon after retirement of the judge by those same politicians or political parties the judge who has delivered the judgement is given a post which pays well such as Rajesh Saba nomination as we can see in the case of the ex-Chief Justice of India. Now you think whether such a scenario will raise questions or not. Definitely it will raise serious questions about judges' independence as a judge when he or she had decided on those cases while in office. In the same manner only Justice Gokai's nomination to Rajesh Saba has raised questions on his independence as the Chief Justice of India when he delivered those verdicts. So based on this the author worries that this move of the government has set a precedent and it strikes a blow against the independence of the judiciary. As a conclusion the author notes that this move of government will lead to a public opprobrium or censure which will deter other judges from following such conduct. This is all about the discussion of this editorial. To summarize this editorial revolves around the recent move of the government where it has nominated the former Chief Justice of India Justice Ranjan Gokai as a member to Rajesh Saba and the author has serious concerns over this move of the government. So he has shared his opinion based on the circumstances when Ranjan Gokai was the Chief Justice of India and he has also discussed about a 16-point code of conduct called the Restatement of Values of Judicial Life Guidelines. Now have a look at the practice question. Let us move on to the next news article. This news article is about recent judgement by the Supreme Court where the Supreme Court has invoked the powers given under article 142 of Indian Constitution in order to disqualify a minister in the Manipur cabinet. So in this context let us see the background story and then we'll come back to the news article. The syllabus that is relevant to the analysis of this news article is given here for your reference. See the Legislative Assembly elections in the state of Manipur was held in 2017. During the elections Indian National Congress Party emerged as the single largest party but if you see the BJP-led National Democratic Alliance succeeded in forming a government in Manipur. Now let us look at this present case know that T. Shyam Kumar who had contested in the Congress ticket became an MLA in this 2017 elections. But in the same year that is in 2017 itself he had defected to the BJP and he became a minister in Manipur State Cabinet. The thing was he neither resigned from the party nor sought re-election. So ideally he should have been disqualified by the speaker but it was not done even after two and a half years after defect. Know that we have the 10th Schedule in Indian Constitution that deals with defection. It was inserted into constitution in the year 1985. It is also called as anti-defection law. Now if you look at this 10th Schedule it lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection by the presiding officer of a legislature based on a petition by any other member of the House. A legislator is deemed to have defected if he either voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or disobeys the directives of the party leadership on a vote. This implies that a legislator having either abstained or if he has voted against the party whip on any issue can lose his membership of the House. And know that this law applies to both parliament and state assemblies. So ideally the defected Manipur MLA should have been disqualified by now. Here one thing which you need to notice that this anti-defection law that is a 10th Schedule did not put a time period for the presiding officer to decide on a disqualification plea. Also know that the presiding officer's decision on disqualification can be challenged in either High Court or Supreme Court. But for this to happen, the presiding officer has to make a decision on the disqualification plea. So using this loophole, the speaker of Manipur Legislative Assembly who was also elected on a BJP ticket did not take any decision over this disqualification plea. If you see such incidents have happened in the past as well, there have been several cases where the courts have expressed concern about the unnecessary delay in deciding the petitions on disqualification. Now in this context, the Supreme Court has taken an extraordinary decision. As per this news article, the Supreme Court has used its extraordinary power under Article 142 of Indian Constitution and it has stripped the defected MLA from its ministerial post and it has also banned them from entering the assembly till further notice. So what is this Article 142? See Article 142 states that the Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass, decree or any such order if it feels it is necessary to give complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it and such decrease or orders which have been passed shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India. So this is the essence of Article 142. If you see, there were several petitions which were filed in the court regarding the disqualification of the defected MLA and ultimately in January 2020, the Supreme Court had given the speaker one month's time to decide on the disqualification of the defected MLA under the 10th schedule. Despite the judgment, the speaker failed to take decision and this prompted the Supreme Court to use its power under Article 142. See, we have been long hearing about defections by our elected representatives and the frequency of such defections have also increased in the recent past. We have heard news about defections in the states of Karnataka, Telangana, Gova and even now in the state of Madhya Pradesh. So we can conclude by saying that the decision of the Supreme Court to disqualify the defected MLA is a step in the right direction. Meanwhile, what the parliament must do is it should amend the 10th schedule in order to put a reasonable time limit on the speaker to decide on defection. This is all about the discussion of this news article. To summarize, we have discussed the ongoing issue in Manipur State Legislative Assembly where an MLA has defected but using a loophole in the 10th schedule, no decision was taken by the speaker of the Manipur State Legislative Assembly to remove him and in this matter, the Supreme Court has used Article 142 to remove the defected MLA. Now have a look at the practice question. Let us move on to the next news article. This news article is about open market operations in short, OMOS. It mentions that the Reserve Bank of India has decided to infuse around 10,000 crore liquidity into the banking system. So in this context, let us see what do we mean by open market operations and how it is being done by the Reserve Bank of India. The syllabus that is relevant to the analysis of this news article is given here for your reference. What are open market operations? See, it is a monetary policy tool. If you see the monetary policy deals with all those instruments or means by which short-term money or capital is raised in the economy, that is the money which is raised for 1 to 364 days. If you see all these policy and the instruments are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. One such monetary policy tool is the open market operations. It is a tool that is used by the Reserve Bank of India to smoothen or control the liquidity conditions throughout the year and also to regulate the money supply in the economy. So what basically the RBI does is it will either buy or sell the government securities. Now this term, government securities, is a very important term in the security market. What do we mean by government securities? Which is also called as GSEC in short. See GSEC is a tradable instrument that is issued by the central government or the state government. And this acknowledges the respective government's debt obligation. When these securities are short-term, they are usually called as treasury bills. They have original maturities of less than one year. And then if you see there are also long-term securities which are usually called as government bonds or dated securities where the original maturity is one year or more. Here you need to know that GSEC carry no risk of default practically. And this is why they are called as risk-free, gilt-edged instruments. Here you need to know that GSEC's are issued through auctions that are conducted by the Reserve Bank of India. The auctions are conducted on the electronic platform called E-Kuber, which is the core banking solution platform of the Reserve Bank of India. We saw that the RBI will either buy or sell the government securities. When will RBI sell the government securities? See, whenever there is an inflationary trend in the market, RBI sells government securities. Now because of this, the liquidity in the market is decreased. Why? Because those who are buying the government securities from RBI are giving their cash to RBI in order to buy. So we can tell that the money is sucked out of the system by the Reserve Bank of India when the RBI sells government securities. And this amounts to dear money. Here dear money is nothing but the money that is expensive to obtain due to high interest rates. So this is the condition when the RBI sells the government securities. Now whenever there is a deflationary trend in the market, RBI purchases the government securities. It means that there is no money in the market. Now RBI wishes to put some money in the system. For this purpose, it will buy the government securities and infuse the money into the system. And because of this, the liquidity in the system is increased. And this amounts to cheap money. Here cheap money is nothing but a loan or credit with a low interest rate. So from this, we can say that the primary aim of open market operations is modulating or regulating the rupee liquidity conditions in the market. So these open market operations are an effective quantitative tool of Reserve Bank of India. But it is constrained by the stock of government securities that is available with the Reserve Bank of India at that point of time. Now why it acts as a constraint? Because if RBI is not having enough government securities to sell, then it cannot increase the liquidity in the market. Now if you look at today's news article, it tells that RBI will conduct open market operations on 20th of March in order to purchase 10,000 crore worth government securities. And this will be done through a multi-security auction using the multiple price method. Here you just need to have an idea about the auction. See the auction that is conducted by the Reserve Bank of India's of two methods, either yield-based or price-based. And based on this, the successful bidders are chosen. Here, know that this OMO auction of RBI is yield-based. Now depending upon the method, the auction may be conducted on uniform price basis or multiple price basis. Here just have an idea about this concept of uniform price auction and multiple price auction. In a uniform price auction, all the successful bidders are required to pay the allotted quantity of securities at the same rate. That is at the auction cut off rate, irrespective of the rate quoted by them. On the other hand, in a multiple price auction, the successful bidders are required to pay for the allotted quantity of securities at the respective price or yield at which they have bid. That is why this multiple price auction is also known as discriminatory price auction. So what RBI is going to do is, it is going to buy the government securities. It means that RBI is aiming to increase the liquidity in the market. Now why RBI is doing this because of the recent risk in the market due to the COVID-19 pandemic? Because certain financial market segments have been experiencing tightening of financial conditions. That is, there is no money available. So in order to ensure that all market segments remain liquid and stable and function normally, the Reserve Bank of India is using this open market operation instrument of buying the government securities. This is all about the discussion of this news article. In this news article, we have seen the decision of RBI to conduct open market operations where it has decided to buy the government securities in order to infuse the liquidity in the banking system. In this context, we saw what do we mean by open market operations and then what do we mean by government securities and when the RBI will either buy or purchase the government securities. And finally, we saw the auction methods conducted by the Reserve Bank of India. Now have a look at the practice question. Let us move on to the next news article. Now let us take up these two questions which is based on this news article. One question is on the Press Council of India and the other question is on the World Press Freedom Index. Now, if you look at this news article, it reports that there is an urgent need to enact a law for the protection of journalists in India. This matter was raised during the zero heart of the ongoing sessions of the Rajesh Sabha. See, during the debate, one of the Congress MPs claimed that India was one of the most dangerous countries for journalists. The member of parliament mentioned that based on the 2015 report of the Press Council of India, it was found that since 1990, about 80 journalists had been killed in India. Therefore, the MP called for an effective legislation to protect the journalists. In this context, you need to focus mainly about the Press Council of India and the World Press Freedom Index. See, the World Press Freedom Index is compiled by a reporter sans frontiers, that is reporters without borders. It is a Paris-based nonprofit organization that works to document and combat attacks on journalists around the world. See, the World Press Freedom Index report of 2019 shows that how hatred of journalists has degenerated into violence and is contributing to an increase in the fear of journalists. In this report, India has been ranked 140 out of 180 countries taken up for ranking. And if you look at this ranking, it is just two ranks above Pakistan. And also this 2019 ranking has worse been compared to the 2018 ranking. Now we will see one more keyword mentioned in this news article, which is the Press Council of India. See, the Press Council of India was first set up in the year 1966 based on the recommendations of the First Press Commission. Know that the Press Council of India is a statutory body as per the Press Council of India Act of 1965. The mandate is to act as a watchdog to oversee the conduct of the print media in India. See, it has two main functions. One is to preserve the freedom of the press and access to maintain and improve the standards of the press in India. Therefore, in order to discharge its responsibilities, the Press Council of India acts as a quasi-judicial authority with all powers of the civil court. And also if you see this Press Council of India as advisory role because it guides the press as well as the authorities on any matter that may have a bearing on the freedom of press and on its preservation. Here know that the Press Council is headed by a chairman. If you see, mostly the chairman has been either a sitting judge or a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. This is the convention that has been followed. So know that it is not mentioned in the act, it is just a convention. Besides the chairperson, the Press Council consists of 28 other members from the press, from the two houses of parliament and also from the cultural, literary and legal fields. And they are also nominated by the Sahitya Academy, the University Grants Commission and the Bar Council of India. So this is all about Press Council of India and World Press Freedom Index that you need to know from exam point of view. Now, let us look at both these questions. First, we look at this question which is about Press Council of India. Two statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Look at the first statement. It tells that Press Council of India was first constituted in 1966 as an autonomous non-statutory quasi-judicial body. We just saw that it was constituted as per the provisions of Press Council of India Act of 1965. So it is a statutory body. So the first statement goes wrong. Now, look at the second statement. It tells that only the sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed as the chairperson of the Press Council of India. This statement is also wrong because we saw it is only a convention. There is no legal backing that only a sitting or retired judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed as the chairperson of the Press Council of India. Since both the statements are incorrect, the correct answer here is option D, neither one nor two. Let us take up the second question which is on World Press Freedom Index. The question is direct. It is released by whom? Here the correct answer is option D, reporter sends frontiers, nothing but reporters without borders. It is a Paris-based non-profit organization that works to document and combat attacks on journalists around the world. So here option D is the correct answer. This news article is about the budget for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir for the upcoming financial year 2020-2021 which was introduced in the Lok Sabha. The news article tells that the Lok Sabha has approved this budget. In this context, let us discuss the provisions which enable the central government to introduce budget for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. The syllabus that is relevant to the analysis of this news article is given here for your reference. First, let us understand the brief background behind the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. See, in November 2018, the then governor of Jammu and Kashmir had dissolved the state legislative assembly of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir. Later, the central government amended Article 370 of Indian Constitution and it enacted the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act of 2019. And based on this, the state of Jammu and Kashmir was reorganized into two Union Territories. One is Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and next is the Union Territory of Ladakh. Now, this Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will have state legislative assemblies similar to the Union Territories of the National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry. See, before amending Article 370, Jammu and Kashmir had its own constitution. And as per that old constitution, Article 79 was dedicated to the annual financial statement or budget for the state. So, just have an idea. Now, once the newly formed Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir gets an elected legislature, its own government will present the budget similar to the governments of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. But as of now, if you see, the election to the legislature has not yet happened in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and at present, the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir continues to be under President's rule. See, in this context, you need to know about Article 239 of Indian Constitution. This Article 239 says that every Union Territory is administered by the president and an administrator will act on behalf of the president and the administrator who is appointed by the president will act on behalf of the president. And along with this Article 239, you also need to know about Article 77. This Article 77 says that all the executive actions of the government of India shall be taken in the name of the president. And it also says that the president shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the government of India and also for the allocation of the business among the ministers. So, based on this, the government of India allocation of business rules 1961 was enacted for the purpose of allocation of business. These rules allow different ministries or departments to transact the business on behalf of the president. Now, under these 1961 rules, the Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry for all matters of Union Territories relating to legislation, finance and budget, services and appointment of left-wing governors and administrators. We just saw that the newly formed Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is now under the president's rule. And as per Section 74 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act of 2019, the president of India had authorized the expenditure out of the consolidated fund of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir pending the sanction by the parliament. So, for the expenditure purpose, various demands are required to be sanctioned by the parliament for the upcoming financial year 2020-2021. So, as per this Section 74, now the central government has introduced the budget for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir in Lok Sabha because, as of now, there is no state legislature. So, this is the reason why the center has introduced the budget for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and has approved the budget. With this, we come to the end of the discussion of this news article. To summarize, this news article is about the budget of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir which has been introduced by the center in the Lok Sabha. We saw the enabling provisions of Indian constitution and the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act of 2019 based on which the center introduced the budget in Lok Sabha. Let us move on to the practice questions discussion session. See this question is related to nominations to Rajya Sabha. Three statements are given and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Look at the first statement. It tells that the president nominates 12 members to Rajya Sabha. Yes, this statement is correct. As per Article 80 Clause 1A of Indian Constitution, the president nominates 12 members to Rajya Sabha. Now, look at the second statement. It tells that two members are nominated from the Anglo-Indian community. This statement is wrong. Know that according to Article 366 Clause 2, an Anglo-Indian means a person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was of European descent but who is domiciled within the Territory of India and is or was born within such territory of parents habitually resident therein and not established there for temporary purposes. So, this is the definition of Anglo-Indian and as per Article 331 of Indian Constitution, if the president is of the opinion that the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented in the Lok Sabha, then he can nominate not more than two members to Lok Sabha. So, it is actually Lok Sabha but not Rajya Sabha. So, the second statement goes wrong. Here, just have an idea that the 126 Constitutional Amendment Bill was passed by both the houses of the parliament in December 2019. This bill seeks to end the nomination of Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha but if you see, it has not received the president ascent yet. So, this is the current affairs related to Anglo-Indian representation in Lok Sabha. So, here the second statement is wrong. Now, look at the third statement. It tells that persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature and social service are nominated. Yes, this statement is correct. It is as per Article 80 Clause 3 of Indian Constitution. Now, you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Here the correct answer is option C1 and 3. See, this question was asked in 2019 problems. It is based on Article 142 which we discussed during our analysis. The question is with reference to the Constitution of India prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following. During our discussion, we saw that this Article 142 gave certain extraordinary powers to the Supreme Court of India. It deals with the enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court. If the Supreme Court thinks that it is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, then the Supreme Court can pass any degree or order and such degree or orders are enforceable throughout the territory of India as prescribed by or under any law made by the parliament. So from this, we can infer that the Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the parliament. So here, option B is the correct answer. So this Article 142 is regarding the Supreme Court of India. Now let us move on to the next question. Two statements are given in this question and you need to choose the correct statement or statements. Look at the first statement. It tells that the provisions regarding the disqualification on the ground of defection of the elected representatives of the parliament and the state legislature is given in the 10th schedule of the Indian constitution. This statement is correct. This 10th schedule is also referred to as anti-defection law sometimes in the news. Now look at the second statement. It tells that in case of Lok Sabha, the presiding officer is bound to take decision on questions referred regarding disqualification within six months. So it tells that the presiding officer of Lok Sabha has to decide on matters regarding disqualification within a time period of six months. Here you need to note that there is no time period which is mentioned in the 10th schedule of Indian constitution. As per this 10th schedule, if any question arises, if a member of the house has to be disqualified, then the questions shall be referred for the decision of the presiding officer of the house. When we tell house, it means the Lok Sabha or the state legislative assembly. So on such matters, this 10th schedule tells that the decision of the presiding officer of the house is final. So it has not mentioned any time limit. So know that there is no time limit because of this the second statement goes wrong. Now using this loophole, many times the speakers of some of the state legislative assembly are not taking decision on matters of disqualification. In this context, we saw this news article today where the speaker of the state legislative assembly of Manipur state did not take decision on the disqualification of a defected MLA for the past two and a half years. So the Supreme Court took this case and delivered judgment as per the provisions of article 142, which we just saw. So here remember that there is no time limit for the presiding officer to take decision on questions regarding disqualification. Now we need to choose the correct statement or statements for this question. The correct answer is option A, 1, 1, G. Now let us look at the next question, which is on E, Kuber. Here you have to identify the correct option, which defines E, Kuber. Now look at the first option. It tells that it is a database which contains credit information from all Schedule Commercial Banks, for all India financial institutions and non-banking financial companies. See, this is about the central depository of information on large credits. It was set up by the Reserve Bank of India in the financial year 2014-15. See, it is basically a database which contains credit information from all the Schedule Commercial Banks, excluding regional rural banks and then from four all India financial institutions, which are Nabbar, Exim Bank, National Housing Bank and Small Industrial Development Bank of India, which is SIDB and also from the non-banking financial companies. So the first statement is regarding the central depository of information on large credits. Now if you look at the second option, it tells that it is an online platform designed to help investors to launch their complaints pertaining to securities market online with SEBI against listed companies and SEBI registered intermediaries. This statement is about scores. See, it is basically an online platform designed to help the investors to launch their complaints, pertaining to the securities market. So all the companies that I received by SEBI against the listed companies and SEBI registered intermediaries are dealt through scores. The full form of scores is SEBI Complaints Redress System. So here option A and B are incorrect. Now look at the third option. It is the Core Banking Solution Platform of Reserve Bank of India that provides the provision of a single current account for each bank across the country. Yes, this statement is correct. This is the definition of Ecuber. Ecuber is basically a Core Banking Solution Platform of the Reserve Bank of India. It provides for a single current account for each bank across India and it gives decentralized access to this account for the banks from any place 24 cross 7. This is done by using portal-based services in a safe manner. Here note that the government securities that is the GSEX are issued through auctions which are conducted by the Reserve Bank of India. So basically the auctions are conducted on this electronic platform Ecuber 1D. Now if you see a Core Banking Solution is special because it gives customer-centric services on a 24 cross 7 basis from a single location and this supports both retail as well as corporate banking activities. The users or the customers with respect to the Reserve Bank of India could be other banks, state governments and central governments. So here option C is the correct answer. With this we come to the end of the analysis of all the news articles taken up for today's discussion and also the practice questions discussion session. 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