 Greetings, aspirants. Meeting you all after a long time. Hope you are all doing good. Approximately we are having one month for our problems exam. At this point of time, you are in hurry in revising all the subjects. In your revision schedule, our initiative of Shankar summary is going to play a prominent role. As part of this Shankar summary initiative, we are providing you important current of isolated topics starting from the month of June 2022. Now, in this video, I am going to discuss some 50 current of isolated problems questions from the month of September 2022. I thank you all for providing such immense support for our previous videos. And a kind request to you all, those who haven't yet subscribed our YouTube channel, do subscribe and hit the bell icon button so that you will get notifications about our future videos. And I have another exciting announcement for you. Shankar Ayes Academy is going to conduct all India mark test for 2023 UPSC problems. We plan to conduct three mark tests on 7th, 14th and 21st May 2023. For each test, we will provide you answer keys and detailed explanations. And you will also get all India rankings. Aspirants, this is free of cost and the registration link is now open for mark tests. So kindly do register and use this wise chance to boost your score. Now, look at these topics provided here. These topics are picked up from September 2022. Based on these topics only, we framed prelims questions. Now, let's get into our first question discussion. Now, look at this first question here. I'll read out the question. The term CERVAVAC sometime in news is related to which of the following. Here, four options are given. We have to find which of these options is related to CERVAVAC. Option A, an antibiotic developed by Bharat Biotech to treat post-COVID fungal infections. Option B, a pneumococcal conjugate vaccine developed by the serum Institute of India. Option C, India's first indigenously developed quadrivalent human papillomavirus vaccine. Option D, a new antiviral drug developed by the National Institute of Fireology to treat COVID infections. Here, the correct answer is option C, India's first indigenously developed quadrivalent human papillomavirus vaccine. Okay, CERVAVAC is nothing but a vaccine. Now, let us see some points about human papillomavirus and CERVAVAC vaccine. Now, first let's start with human papillomavirus. See, human papillomavirus, which is shortly called as HPV, refers to a very common group of viruses. HPV is a common infection and they spread through vaginal, anal or oral sex. Know that the sexually transmitted HPV falls into two groups. They are low-risk and high-risk HPVs. The low-risk HPVs mostly do not cause disease. However, a few low-risk types can cause non-cancerous problems on or around the genitals, anus, mouth or throat. Okay, now coming to high-risk HPVs, see, these high-risk HPVs can cause several types of cancer like cervical, anal, penile and vaginal cancer. Know that there are about 14 high-risk HPV types. Among them, HPV16 and HPV18 are responsible for most HPV-related cancers. Know that nearly 83% of invasive cervical cancers in India and 70% of cases worldwide are attributed to HPV types of 16 and 18. If we specifically take India, see annually 1.25 lakh women are diagnosed with cervical cancer and over 75,000 women die from the disease. So, we can say that cervical cancer accounts for most cases of cancer in women in India. Therefore, HPV infection is one of the serious problems that needs to be addressed. So, because of this seriousness, the Indian government expedited the development of HPV vaccines. As a result, CERUVAVAC was developed. Now coming to CERUVAVAC, first of all know that CERUVAVAC is a quadrivalent vaccine. This means that CERUVAVAC is effective against at least 4 variants of cancer-causing human papillomovirus. The quadrivalent HPV vaccine works against types of 6, 11, 16 and 18 HPV types. Know that CERUVAVAC is India's first indigenously developed quadrivalent human papillomovirus vaccine. This being developed by the CRM Institute of India in partnership with Department of Biotechnology and the Biotechnology Industry Research Assistant Council along with Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation. See, according to the information from government sources, CERUVAVAC is going to be rolled out in coming June. Apart from CERUVAVAC, India has two HPV vaccines. Presently, they are available in the private market and both of them are made by foreign companies. Those two vaccines include Gardasil and Cervarix. Now with this information, let us move on to the next question. See, this question is a pair-based question. On one side, we have various ethnic groups and on the other side, we have the location. So, we have to find which of these pairs are correctly matched. See here, pair 1 and 2 are correctly matched. As we all know, Uyghurs are an ethnic group from China and Hutus are from Ravanda. So, pair 1 and 2 are correctly matched. The other two pairs are incorrectly matched. Actually, yes, these are mainly located in Iran and Chechens are located in Russia. So, pair 3 and 4 are incorrectly matched. Since only two pairs are correctly matched, the correct answer is option B, only two pairs. Now, as a part of this question discussion, let us see a few important points about the ethnic groups given here. Now first, let's take Uyghurs. See, Uyghurs are a Turkic-speaking ethnic group originating from the regions of Central and East Asia. Uyghurs are recognized as native to China's Northwest region of Xinjiang. See, recently, the Uyghurs was in news because China has detained more than 1 million Uyghurs over the past few years in the name of re-education camps. See, the Chinese officials are concerned that Uyghurs hold extremist and separatist ideas and officials use the camp as a way of eliminating threats to China's territorial integrity, government and population. This is all about Uyghurs. Now, moving on to Hutu. See, Hutus are ethnic group native to the African Great Lakes region. They mainly live in Rwanda, Burundi and Eastern Democratic Republic of the Congo. See, there is a movie called Hotel Rwanda. If you watch that movie, you come to know about the struggle of Hutu-Tutsi. Okay, this is all about Hutu. Now, let's take S.C.D. See, the S.C.Ds are one of the world's smallest and oldest monotheistic religious minorities. S.C.D translates into worshippers of God. Their religion is considered a pre-Islamic sect that draws from Christianity, Judaism and Zoroastrianism. The S.C.Ds believe in a supreme being named Asdan, whose seven spirits include a peacock angel named Malik Tawus. Know that S.C.Ds speak the Kurma Anji language. And know that the majority of S.C.Ds live in Iraq. Okay, now finally let us see about Chechens. See, Chechens are the largest ethnic group of North Caucasus. They live in Chinchia, which is a Republic of Russia. They follow the Islamic faith. Chechens was in use because recently Ramzan, Kadirau, the head of the Chechen Republic, sent forces to Ukraine in support of Russia. Okay, this is all about ethnic groups. Now, with this information, let us move on to the next question. Now, look at this question here. It is about Maratha Empire. First statement says that Ashtapradhan is an administrative and advisory council created by Chhatrapati Shivaji for the good governance of the Maratha Empire. See, this statement is correct. See, Chhatrapati Shivaji established a good and sound system of administration. In that administration, King was considered to be the most important and pivotal part of the government. So, to advise and aid the King, Chhatrapati Shivaji established a council called Ashtapradhan. The council consists of 8 members and they assist the King in all matters. This believed that this council only contributed to Shivaji's successful military attacks on Mughal Empire and also to the good governance of the territory. See, the council members are given here for your reference. Pass the video and just go through it. Once again, the first statement is correct. Ashtapradhan is an administrative and advisory council created by Chhatrapati Shivaji for the good governance of the Maratha Empire. This statement is correct. Now, coming to the second statement, Sadeshmuki was attacked by two Marathas by neighboring countries in order to avoid raids by Marathas. See, this statement is incorrect. See, revenue policies of Maratha majorly included land revenue. It is believed that Shivaji's revenue system was inspired by the system followed by Malik Amber and Shivaji also made certain modifications. During Shivaji's reign, land was measured by Kathi, which is a measuring rod. Certain amount was fixed by the state as revenue to be shared with states from the lands. Apart from this, the taxes collected during this period include Chaut and Sadeshmuki. See, Chaut was one fourth of the land revenue paid to the Marathas in order to avoid the Maratha raids. Whereas, Sadeshmuki was an additional levy of 10% on those lands which the Marathas claimed hereditary rights. So, the tax given in the second statement is Chaut and not Sadeshmuki. So, second statement is incorrect. Now, coming to the third statement, Tanjavur school of painting which is famous for its gold coating is immensely patronized by Maratha rulers. See, this statement is actually correct. Tanjavur school is a special style of decorative paintings and it was patronized by Maratha rulers during 18th century. These paintings are unique as they are mostly created on glass and wooden planks, which is called Palagai Padam. They are unique because of the use of brilliant colored patterns and the liberal use of gold leaf. See, most of the Tanjavur paintings depict smiling Krishna in various poses and various major events in his life. See, these paintings reached the zenith under the patronage of Maharaja Sarafoji II of Maratha dynasty. Okay, so statement 3 is correct. Here the correct answer for the question is option A, 1 and 3 only. See, we have framed this question about Maratha because in last September, Indian naval ensign was changed. The new design includes our national flag and a blue octagonal shape containing naval emblem at top and the Navy's motto, Samno Varunakh. This blue octagonal with twin golden bars in its fly area drew inspiration from the seal of Maratha rulers. Okay, so revise all facts about Maratha Empire. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about the non-proliferation treaty. Now before answering this question, let us learn some points about non-proliferation treaty that is NPT. See, NPT refers to the treaty on the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons, which is commonly known as the non-proliferation treaty. Here the term non-proliferation refers to the policy of preventing the spread or increase in the number of weapons. See, on 12th June 1968, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution 2373-22. This resolution commanded the treaty on the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons. Then the non-proliferation treaty was opened for signing in the year 1968. And the treaty entered into force in 1970. The non-proliferation treaty contains 11 articles that apply to both nuclear and non-nuclear weapons state parties. Okay, now coming to the members of the treaty, see a total of 191 states have signed the non-proliferation treaty which includes the P5R permanent members to the United Nations Security Council. P5 countries include US, UK, Russia, France and China. Know that the countries such as India, Israel and Pakistan have now signed non-proliferation treaty. See, India and Pakistan have publicly disclosed about their nuclear weapons. But Israel's nuclear weapon capacity is unclear. Okay, now why did India never sign the NPT? See the articles 2 and 4 of NPT require the countries to give up the present or future plans to build nuclear weapons. But the same articles exempt P5 countries from such requirements. So, India is consistently opposing the NPT by terming it as the discriminatory treaty. So, because of these two articles of NPT and the consistent threats posed by your neighbors such as China and Pakistan, India has never signed non-proliferation treaty. Okay, now coming to the objectives of NPT Firstly, NPT aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapon technology beyond the P5 countries. Secondly, NPT promotes cooperation in the field of peaceful uses of nuclear energy. And finally, NPT aims to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament. Okay, now with this information, let's approach the question. With reference to non-proliferation treaty, consider the following statements. Now, because this first statement, it aims to promote cooperation in the field of peaceful use of nuclear energy. See, this statement is correct. As we saw now, it is one of the objectives of NPT. So, statement one is correct. Now, coming to the second statement, India is one of the founding members of the treaty. See, this statement is incorrect because India has never signed NPT and it is a not-member-to-non-proliferation treaty. So, statement two is incorrect. Now, coming to the third statement, as per the provisions of the NPT, all the member countries are required to give up any present or future plans to build nuclear weapons. See, this statement is incorrect. As we saw, the articles two and four of NPT require the member states to give up any present or future plans to build nuclear weapons. But there is some assumption. The articles two and four exempt the P5 countries such as US, UK, Russia, France and China. So, the provisions of NPT does not include all the countries. Okay, so statement three is incorrect. And look carefully, the question asks for incorrect statements. Here, the second and third statements are incorrect. So, the correct answer is option B 213 only. Now, let's move on to the next question. See, this question is a par-based question. On one side, we have various climate change mitigation-related terms and on the other side, we have the origin. Here, we have to find which of these pairs are correctly matched. See, all the pairs given here are correctly matched. So, the correct answer is option D all four pairs. Now, as part of this question discussion, let us see a few points about the terms given here. Now, first, let's take CBDR RC. See, CBDR RC stands for Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities. See, CBDR RC is the principle of International Environmental Law. This principle was set out in the QTO protocol. It means that all the states are responsible for addressing global environmental destruction but not equally responsible. So, these differences in turn are linked to countries' contributions as well as their abilities to address greenhouse gas emissions. Okay, this is all about common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities. Now, moving on to loss and damage fund. Now, first, let's understand the phrase loss and damages. See, the phrase refers to economic loss caused due to the climate change induced disasters. See, climate funding so far has focused mostly on cutting carbon dioxide emissions in an effort to curb global warming. That is, till now the developed countries didn't pay for any damages caused due to climate change induced disasters to the vulnerable countries. So, the loss and damages fund specifically covers the cost of damages that countries face due to climate change. Okay, this is all about loss and damages fund. I know that this fund was established as a part of COP 27 that was held recently in Shraam El Sheikh, Egypt. Okay, now moving on to the next term. That is INDC. Here INDC stands for Intended Nationally Determined Contributions. See, 2015 was a historic year in which 196 parties came together under the Paris Agreement. Under this, the countries agreed to transform their development trajectories towards sustainable development. The Paris Agreement aims at limiting global warming to 1.5°C to 2°C above pre-industrial levels. Through the Paris Agreement, parties also agreed to a long-term goal for adaptation. So, before the Paris Agreement, the QTOP protocol and all had a top-down mechanism by which the countries were assigned targets. But the Paris Agreement is an outlier. The Paris Agreement asks the countries to come up with targets and it takes into consideration of the national challenges. Accordingly, each country came up with the targets which is called as Intended Nationally Determined Contributions. Note that this target is provided in Article 4 of the Paris Agreement. Note that INDC that is Intended Nationally Determined Contributions is not legally binding on the countries. But the countries are however required to submit the progress report manually. This is all about INDC. The last term is Green Climate Fund. See the Green Climate Fund that is GCF is the world's largest environmental fund that seeks to help developing nations in cutting down their greenhouse gas emissions. And it also helps developing countries to adapt suitably to climate change. Note that the Green Climate Fund will operate in a transparent and accountable manner guided by efficiency and effectiveness. The Green Climate Fund was established in COP16 in Cancun. This is all about the terms. Now with this information let us move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about Vostok 22 exercise. We have framed this question because in last September this exercise was conducted. So you may expect a question from this topic. If you look carefully the question has asked for incorrect option about Vostok 22 exercise. Now look at this first option. Vostok 22 is an annual military exercise conducted by Russia. See this option is correct. Vostok 22 is an annual exercise conducted by Russia. And the aim of the exercise is to interact and coordinate with other participating military contingents and observers. So option A is correct. Second option, Vostok 22 included military exercises component in the strategically important eastern districts and maritime component near the disputed islands of South Kuril. See this option is correct. Vostok 22 consisted of two components. The first component that is the land exercise component are held in Russian military training grounds in Siberia and the far eastern federal district. And there is this second component which is the maritime part of the exercise. It was held in the Sea of Oaks and the Sea of Japan. This is near the disputed South Kuril Islands. So second option is correct. Now coming to the third option, both India and China participated in military and maritime components of the Vostok 22 exercise. See this option is incorrect because both India and China participated in Vostok 22 exercise. Apart from India and China other countries which participated include Algeria, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Laos, Mongolia, Nicaragua, Syria and Tajikistan. But know that India participated only in the military land exercise component. This is because India took into consideration about the concerns of Japan. See we saw that maritime component will be conducted in Sea of Oaks and Sea of Japan. And it is near the disputed South Kuril Islands. So after the announcement of place for the maritime exercise, Japan Foreign Ministry asked Russia to move the location of its maritime exercise. But Russia rejected the Japan's concern. So because of this, India sent only its army contingent of the 7 bar 8 Gorka rifles. And India did not take part in maritime exercise. This is why the third option is incorrect. But we have to verify whether the fourth option that is the option D is correct or not. Now look at this option D India has sent only the army contingent of the 7 bar 8 Gorka rifles to the Vostok 22 exercise. See this we saw just now this option is correct. Once again the correct answer is option C. Now let's move on to the next question. See the question we are going to discuss is related to virus. Virus has been a favorite topic for UPSC. There have been so many questions related to virus in the UPSC prelims exam over the past years. I have displayed some questions from 2013, 15, 16 and 2021 for your reference. So this here also we can expect a question about viruses or something related to viruses. See in last September there was news about virus like particles or VLP developed by Indian Institute of Science which is based in Bangalore. So the question now we are going to discuss is about virus like particles. Now look at this question consider the following statements about virus like particles or VLP. Look at this first statement virus like particles are infectious as they contain the native genetic material of the virus. See this statement is incorrect. Know that virus like particles are nanoscale structures made up of assembled viral proteins. Since VLPs are made up of viral proteins they can mimic the virus. But the thing is that these VLPs lack viral genetic material and this makes them non infectious. So statement one is incorrect. Now coming to the second statement. VLP can be used as carriers for the delivery of bio and nano materials such as drugs, vaccines and quantum dots. See this statement is correct. Due to their nanostructures the virus like particles can be used as vectors. So virus like particles can be used as carriers for delivery of bio and nano materials such as drugs and vaccines. So statement two is correct. Now coming to the third statement. VLPs can be used in treatment of hereditary and genetic disorders. See this statement is also correct. Virus like particles can also be used for the treatment of genetic and hereditary disorders. Apart from this VLPs can also be used as gene therapy tools. So statement three is correct. Now coming to the fourth statement. Vascines for hepatitis B virus and human papillomovirus have been developed using virus like particles. See this statement is also correct. Since virus like particles lack genetic material and are non infectious they are the perfect candidates for making vascines. And know that VLP based vascines are already available for hepatitis B and human papillomovirus. So fourth statement is correct. Here the question is asking for correct statements. Here statements two, three and four are correct. So the correct answer is option B two, three and four only. Moving on. Now look at this question here. This question is about liquid nano urea. See we have framed this question because there was a question in 2016 prelims about neem quarter urea. So this year you may expect a question about liquid nano urea. This is because UPC has not asked about liquid nano urea yet. Okay. Now first of all let us see about this liquid nano urea and then you are going to answer the question. Now first of all let us see about this liquid nano urea and then we will approach the question. See the liquid nano urea is a nano technology based agree input which provides nitrogen to plants. So it is nothing but urea in nano size. It was developed and patented by Indian farmers fertilizer cooperative limited that is IFCO. Also know that IFCO nano urea is the first nano fertilizer approved by government and it is included in fertilizer control order. Know that fertilizer control order is the mother act that regulates the sale, pricing, distribution and other formalities of fertilizers in India. Know that India's first liquid nano urea plant was set up in Gujarat and now there are many plants. Now coming to nano urea nano urea contains 4% total nitrogen. Its size ranges from 20 to 50 nanometer and this small size of the urea increases its availability to crop by more than 80%. See nano urea can be sprayed directly on the leaves and they enter into leaves through stomata and other openings and is assimilated by the stem cells. Apart from this the nano urea have the property to easily distribute through a flow em. Now talking about the benefits of liquid nano urea firstly high nutrient use efficiency. See because of its small size and more surface area to volume ratio the nano urea particles are easily available to crops. Then the second benefit is high crop yield. See due to increased nutrient use efficiency by using liquid nano urea the crop yield will also be higher. Then the third benefit is better quality of crop produce due to the usage of nano urea and the fourth benefit is reduction in the use of conventional chemical fertilizer. Know that the one bottle that is 500 ml of Ifco nano urea can potentially replace at least one bag of conventional urea. So liquid nano urea helps in the reduction of usage of conventional chemical fertilizer. And the final benefit is minimizing the environmental food print by reducing the loss of nutrients from agricultural fields in the form of leaching and gases emissions. So these are the benefits associated with liquid nano urea. Now with this information let's approach the question. The question is that in which of the following states the first liquid nano urea plant was established. As we saw in India the first liquid nano urea plant was established Gujarat. So the correct answer is option B Gujarat. Now with this information let us move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about protection of child from sexual offenses act 2012. Here two statements are given and we have to find which of these statements are correct. Now before answering the question let us see some points about the POCSA Act. See the POCSA Act was enacted in 2012 by the Ministry of Human and Child Development. It was enacted to protect the children from offenses of sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography. The POCSA Act provides for the establishment of special codes for the trial of sexual offenses on children and related matters. Note that the POCSA Act is gender neutral in which the act defines a child as any person under the age of 18. This means that the act takes into account the sexual assault committed on both male and female children. Apart from this the POCSA Act defines different forms of sexual abuse including penetrative and non-penetrative assault and as well as sexual harassment and pornography. Note one point here. The POCSA Act was amended in 2019 and it came to be known as POCSA Amendment Act 2019. Through this amendment the punishments for penetrative sexual assault on a child under the POCSA Act have been enhanced. Earlier the penetrative sexual assault on a child can lead to an imprisonment of 7 years. But after the amendment the minimum punishment was increased from 7 years to 10 years. The amendment further added that if a person commits penetrative sexual assault on a child below the age of 16 years then he or she shall be punishable with imprisonment between 20 years to the life imprisonment and the person shall also be liable to pay fine. Then if the penetrative sexual assault is carried out on a child aged between 16 and 18 the convicted person shall be punishable with imprisonment between 10 years to the life imprisonment and shall also be liable to fine. Ok. This is all about the punishments related to penetrative sexual assault on a child. See there are some other forms of sexual abuse defined in the POCSA Act and the act also provided punishment for those abuses. So just go through the provisions of the act which is available on the official website of the government. Now with this information let's approach the question. With reference to the protection of children from sexual offenses Act 2012 consider the following statements. Look at this first statement. This act does not take into account non penetrative sexual assault on children aged between 16 and 18 years. See this statement is incorrect because the POCSA Act takes into account different forms of sexual abuse on children under the age of 18. It includes penetrative and non penetrative assault as well as sexual harassment and pornography. So statement 1 is incorrect. Now look at this second statement. The act provides for life imprisonment to a person who commits penetrative sexual assault on a child below the age of 16 years. See this statement is correct as we saw POCSA Act provides for the imprisonment between 20 years to the life imprisonment and fine to a person if he or she commits penetrative sexual assault on a child below the age of 16 years. So statement 2 is correct. Here the question is asking for correct statements. So the correct answer is option B2 only. Now with this information let us move on to the next question. Now take a look at this question. I alluded to the question. The government of India has recently proposed to set up India's first ever dark sky reserve in which of the following places? Option A, Kulosegarapatinam in Tamil Nadu. Option B, Dr. Abdul Kalam island in Kosa, Odisha. Option C, forest areas of Laxvedip island. And option D, Hanley in Ladakh. See the correct answer for this question is option D, Hanley in Ladakh. Since we heard the term dark sky reserve, now let us see some points about dark sky reserves. See dark sky reserves are places which have very minimal light pollution. As we all know the light pollution reduces the visibility of celestial bodies in the sky. So the dark sky reserves help us with astronomical observations. As we saw recently the government of India has proposed to set up India's first ever dark sky reserve in Hanley, Ladakh. Note that Hanley is situated within the Changthang wildlife sanctuary in Ladakh. This dark sky reserve is an initiative of the department of science and technology. The proposed dark sky reserve spreading across an area of 1073 square kilometers. Note that to set up the dark sky reserve at Ladakh, a memorandum of understanding was signed between administration of union territory of Ladakh, then Ladakh Autonomous Hill Development Council and Indian Institute of Astrophysics. Now why was Hanley chosen to set up dark sky reserve? See Hanley was chosen as a site because it is a cold desert region where there is minimal human disturbances. Apart from this the sky will be clear and the weather is dry throughout the year in Hanley. And that's why Hanley was chosen to set up dark sky reserve. Now coming to the significance of dark sky reserve the dark sky reserve in Hanley will boost the astrotourism of the country. Note that the proposed dark sky reserve is one of the world's highest located sites for the optical infrared and gamma ray telescopes. So the dark sky reserve in Hanley has the potential to strengthen scientific research in our country. Now these points let us move on to the next question. Look at this question here. This question asks us to find which of these options are related to prop the portal. Option A it is an initiative to bring transparency in power purchase transactions. Option B it is a portal used to collect data about the functioning of MG Narayega scheme. Option C a digital portal that offers a number of educational courses across various fields. And option D an initiative of the SEBI to safeguard the interests of investors. See the correct answer for the question is option A it is an initiative to bring transparency in power purchase transactions. Okay now let us learn some points about prop the portal. First of all know that prop the stands for payment ratification and analysis in procurement for bringing transparency in invising of generators. And know that prop the is a web portal and an app. This portal aims to bring out transparency in the process of power purchase transactions between the power generators and the discomps. Know that discomps are nothing but power distribution companies. Now talking about the benefits of prop the portal. See the prop the portal allows us to capture the invising and payment data for various long term power purchase agreements from the power generators. It even allows the users to know about the details later to the payments made by discomps to the power generation companies which includes the time in which the payments are made. Apart from this the prop the portal enables the consumers to evaluate the financial performance of their discomps. Then the portal will also help discomps and power generation companies to reconcile their outstanding payments. In addition to this the prop the portal facilitates relative assessment of various state discomps on ease of making payments to various power generation companies. And it will also help make transactions in the power sector more transparent. Ok from this discussion it is pretty much clear that the objective of prop the portal is to bring out transparency in the process of power purchase transactions. These points let us move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about inflatable aerodynamic decelerator that is IAD. Here three statements are given and we have to find which of these statements are correct. Now before answering the question let us learn some points about IAD that is inflatable aerodynamic decelerator. First of all know that inflatable aerodynamic decelerator was designed and developed by Vikram Sarabhai Space Center which is located in Kerala. The IAD is a system that was specifically designed to recover the spent rockets. And know that the spent rockets are differed from space debris. The spent rockets are residual cells of a solid propellant rocket whereas the space debris include residuals of satellites or other components. Ok now what are all the benefits associated with IAD? See IAD spent rocket recovery system is useful in two ways. Firstly it prevents damage to the rocket during its descent to Earth. Secondly IAD prevents damage to people or properties. See when there are no recovery systems the rocket will fall on Earth just like a missile with supersonic speed. And this may cause damage to the surrounding area or to the people. So the IAD which is designed to follow a predicted trajectory will prevent damage to people or properties. Ok these are all the benefits. Now let's see the features of IAD and then how it works. Know that IAD includes an inflatable device and an inflatant. The inflatant is configured to fill the inflatable envelope into an inflated state. After the inflatable envelope is filled with inflatant the envelope surrounds the payload. And the subsequent aerodynamic forces decelerates the payload. So IAD aerodynamically decelerates an object descending through the atmosphere. That is IAD systematically reduces the velocity of the payload through aerodynamic drag. This means that the IAD is designed to follow a predicted trajectory. Ok know that the inflatable structure is made out of Kevlar fabric. And it is coated with polychloroprene. See the IAD is folded and kept inside the payload bay of the rocket. And in IAD uses compression nitrogen which is stored in glass bottle. Now look at this image here. This is how IAD looks before and after it inflates. See recently ISRO tested this IAD. And during the test stage the IAD was inflated at around 84 kilometer altitude. After that it makes a reentry and falls into the sea. And then it was recorded by ISRO. Ok so this is how IAD works. Now with this information let's approach the question. Now look at this fourth statement. IAD was designed and developed by Vikram Sarabhai Space Center. This statement is correct. IAD was designed and developed by Vikram Sarabhai Space Center which is located in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. Now coming to the second statement. IAD is a system used to remove space debris. See this statement is wrong because IAD is specifically designed to recover the spent rockets. And not space debris. So second statement is incorrect. Now coming to the third statement. It systematically reduces the velocity of the payload through aerodynamic drag. Yes the IAD aids in slowing down the movement of payload through aerodynamic drag. So third statement is correct. Here the question is asking for color statement. So the correct answer is option C 1 and 3 only. Now with this information let us move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about personal loss. Now before answering the question let us see some points about personal loss. See personal loss are basically rules that govern personal matters like marriage divorce inheritance and so on. In India these personal loss come under the concurrent list which means that both the central government and the state governments can make law on personal loss subject. Okay now when it comes to personal loss there are different religious communities. For example the Hindu personal law applies to Hindus and also to Sikhs, Jains and Buddhists. These laws have been codified by the parliament in 1956. This means that they have been written down and made into laws. The Hindu personal laws have been modernized and secularized by statutory enactments. Which means that they have been upgraded to reflect modern values and beliefs. And know that the Hindu personal laws have been split into four parts. It includes the Hindu marriage act, the Hindu succession act, the Hindu minority and guardianship act and Hindu adoption and maintenance act. Okay these laws lay down rules for things like marriage, inheritance, guardianship and adoption. Okay on the other hand Muslim personal laws are still primarily unmodified and traditional in their content and approach. Know that the Sharyat law of 1937 governs the personal matters of all Muslims in India. This law states that in matters of personal disputes the state shall not interfere and a religious authority would pass a declaration based on his interpretations of the Quran and the Fahdiyat. Apart from Hindus and Muslims, Christians and Jews are also governed by different personal laws. So this is the basic idea behind personal laws in India where different communities have their own set of rules that govern personal matters. And know that adoption that is adopting children or some other people is not permitted in the personal laws of Muslim, Christians, Parsis and Jews in India. So these communities usually go for guardianship. But know that adoption is permitted under Hindu personal laws okay. Here you should also know about uniform civil code. See the constitution in its article 44 requires the state to strive to secure for its citizens a uniform civil code throughout India. And know that despite it is mentioned in constitution the uniform civil code is not codified in India. And know that Goa is the only state in India which has uniform civil code. Okay now coming to the question. Look at this first statement in India personal laws were placed in the concurrent list. As we saw personal laws were placed in concurrent list. So statement one is correct. Now coming to the second statement Goa is the only Indian state that has a uniform civil code. As we saw just now Goa is only having uniform civil code. So statement two is also correct. Now coming to the third statement, adoption is not permitted in the personal laws of Muslim, Christians, Parsis and Jews in India. Actually this statement is correct as we saw personal laws of Muslim, Christians, Parsis and Jews does not permit adoption. But adoption is permitted in Hindu personal laws. Okay. Here three statements are correct. So the correct answer is option D one two one three. Moving on. Now look at this question here. I'll read out the question. Ohra committee is associated with which of the following. Option A, criminalization of politics. Option B, Panjaitaraj institutions. Option C, tax structure reforms. Option D, socially or educationally backward classes. Here the correct answer is option A, criminalization of politics. Okay. If you may see as question about Ohra committee, you should remember that it is related to criminalization of politics. Okay. Now using this opportunity, let us quickly talk about the qualifications and disqualification grounds for becoming an MP in India. See according to article 84 of Indian constitution, if a person is eligible to become an MP, then the person should need to be an Indian citizen and he should meet certain age requirements, which are 30 years for Lokshaba and 25 years for Lokshaba. Additionally, the person need to meet any other qualifications that may be prescribed by law. Okay. This third condition only let the parliament to include other qualifications for MP in the representation of people at 1951. Here the qualifications are the person must be a registered voter in a parliamentary constituency and he or she should be eligible to vote. If for any reason the person lost eligibility to vote, then he or she will also lost eligibility to contest elections. However, if the person are in primitive custody, they are still eligible to vote. Okay. It is important to note that the person do not have to be registered in the same constituency where he or she want to run for an MP seat. And if the seat is reserved for certain category, only someone from that category can contest in particular constituency. Okay. These are all qualifications. On the other hand, there are certain disqualification grounds that can make the person ineligible to become an MP. The constitution of India has provided in article 102 that a member of parliament will be disqualified for membership if he or she is holding any office of profit under union or state government. And there is some exemption for this criteria which means the office of minister or some other office are exempted under this criteria. Then other criteria include being of unsound mind and undischarged insolvent or ceasing to be an Indian citizen or he or she is disqualified under any other law by parliament. Okay. Here this last condition let the parliament to include some other conditions for disqualifications in representation of people act 1951. Under that if the person have been found guilty of certain election offenses or corrupt practices, then he or she convicted of a crime that results in imprisonment of two or more years then he or she failed to report any election expenses on time or have any interest in government contracts, work and services then the person will be disqualified to become an MP. Okay. Apart from this, the person also cannot be a director or managing personal in any company or organization where the government has at least 25 percentage share then he or she has been dismissed from government service due to corruption or disloyalty to the state or he or she convicted for promoting enmity between groups or punished for supporting social crimes like untouchability, sadhi or dowry. So if a person is with these conditions then he or she will be disqualified to contest for an MP post. Apart from this we have 10th schedule which is anti defection law. Okay. So these are the qualifications and disqualification grounds for an MP in India. Now with these points let us move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question asks us to find the term hyperlapse consumerism is related to which of these options. Now before answering the question let us see some points about hyperlapse consumerism. See the term hyperlapse consumerism is related to e-commerce. See many of us order products through Amazon or Flipkart. Now because of this facility we do not need to go in person to buy things. Then the order products also usually reaches in 2 or 3 days. This promotes ease of buying of the consumer and the effectiveness of the delivery. Okay. This is what termed as hyperlapse consumerism. Now what are the benefits associated with hyperlapse consumerism? Firstly it gives rise to huge employment through the gig economy. Secondly for the consumers ease of consuming is considerably increased with fast deliveries. And the shopping is made impersonal without the need to be present physically to buy. So these are the benefits associated with hyperlapse consumerism. Now let us look at the issues associated with hyperlapse consumerism. Firstly since the gig economy does not work based on employment contracts the social security needs of the employees are not taken care of. Okay. Secondly with the consumer behavior prompting speedier delivery the delivery professionals might resort to reckless driving which causes road safety concerns. And thirdly prolonged unsustainable consumption might lead to environmental degradation. Okay. With this information now let us approach the question. Which of the following best describes the term hyperlapse consumerism recently seen in news? Here the answer is option A ease of buying of the consumer through e-commerce and the speed of product delivery. Okay. Now with this information let us move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about PM Shree scheme. Four statements about the scheme are given. We have to find the correct statements. Okay. Now look at this first statement. Under this scheme new schools will be established by the government and these schools will act as model schools for showcasing all the components of the national education policy 2020. See this statement is incorrect because under the scheme the government plans to develop more than 14,500 existing schools. And note one point here no new schools will be developed but existing schools will be developed. Here the schools managed by central government or state government or union territory government or local bodies will be developed. Okay. And these schools will be developed as model schools. In addition to this the schools will showcase all the components of national education policy 2020. Okay. So statement one is incorrect because under the scheme no new schools will be established. Okay. Now coming to second statement the scheme aims to provide high quality education in an equitable inclusive and joyful school environment. Actually this statement is correct. This statement is one of the objectives of PM Shree scheme. In addition to this the schools developed under the scheme will act as leader and provide mentorship to other schools. Okay. Once again statement two is correct. Now coming to third statement the schools will be developed as green schools by incorporating environment friendly aspects like solar panels and LED lights. See this statement is also correct. The PM Shree schools will be developed as green schools. This is by incorporating environment friendly aspects like solar panels and LED lights, nutrition gardens with natural forming, waste management, plastic free, water conservation and harvesting. Okay. This is also one of the significance of PM Shree scheme. So statement three is correct. Now coming to the last statement in the scheme the main focus will be on addressing the dropout rate. See this statement is incorrect because the main focus of PM Shree scheme is on the learning outcomes. So to increase learning outcome assessment would be conducted to check the conceptual understanding and application of knowledge of the students. So statement four is incorrect. This is because PM Shree scheme is nothing to do with dropout rate. Here statements two and three alone are correct. So the correct answer is option B 213 only. Moving on now look at this question here. This question is a pair based question on one side mode of vaccine administration is given and on the other side names of vaccine are given. Now we have to find which of the pairs are correctly matched before we approach this question. Let us see some points about various types of vaccine administration. Now first let's take intramuscular vaccine see most of the vaccines are administered through intramuscular mode in this type of vaccine administration the vaccine is administered directly into the muscle as you can see in this image. Now that the COVID vaccines such as CoV shield and CoV vaccine are injected through intramuscular mode. Okay moving on now let's take subcutaneous mode of vaccine administration. In this mode vaccines are injected in the tissue present between the skin and the muscle know that Pfizer CoV vaccine is administered via subcutaneous mode. The next is intradermal mode of administration see in this mode the vaccine is delivered into the outer layers of the skin and know that ZicovD CoV vaccine is administered via intradermal mode and the last one is nasal mode of administration. See nasal vaccine is administered into the nostrils without any need for injections. Note that in CoV developed by Bharat Biotech is the world's first nasal vaccine for COVID. Okay now let's approach the question first pair intramuscular CoV shield as we saw CoV shield is administered through intramuscular so pair one is correct. Second pair subcutaneous CoV vaccine see this pair is incorrect because CoV vaccine is also administered through intramuscular mode and not through subcutaneous mode. Third pair intradermal ZicovD this pair is correct. Fourth pair nasal in CoV as we saw this pair is also correct and know that in CoV is the world's first nasal vaccine for COVID. Okay here first third and fourth pairs alone are correctly matched so the correct answer is option see only three pairs. Now with these points let us move on to the next question. See in the 2022 prelims there was a question like this. Here names of four fauna were given we have to find which among the following is not a bird. Know that the answer for this question is golden masheer. See this question may appear random but it is not a random question. In 2021 golden masheer made news it was moved from endangered category to the least concerned category in the IUCN red list that's why golden masheer made news and UPC also has asked the question. Okay so this question prompted us to frame the next question. Now look at this question here. Here four fauna are given and we have to find which among them are fish. Now before answering the question let us learn about these four species. Now first let's take hilsa. See hilsa is a fish species. It is the natural fish of Bangladesh and the state fish of West Bengal. It is generally referred to as king of fish for its soft texture and pleasant flavor and know that the hilsa fish is placed in the category of least concerned under the IUCN red list. Though hilsa is a salt water fish it migrates to fresh waters of the Ganges from the Bay of Bengal during the mating seasons and they return back to water after spawning that is after laying eggs. Know that hilsa is endemic to Bay of Bengal, Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea and the hilsa fish is well distributed in the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Meghna drainage systems of India and Bangladesh. Okay this is about hilsa. Now moving on to Indian nightjar. See Indian nightjar is a bird. The species is found from northwestern India and adjoining parts of Pakistan. The species is found in open woodland scurps and cultivation areas. It usually sits on the ground or lotaries. Know that the bird is mainly active during dawn and dusk. Okay this is about Indian nightjar. Now moving on to Bombay duck. Although Bombay duck has the term duck in it it is a fish and not a bird. Know that Bombay duck lives in the tropical areas of Indo-Pacific region. It is mainly found in waters off the coast of Maharashtra and Gujarat in the Arabian Sea. This fish is also seen in the Bay of Bengal and in the South China Sea also in small numbers. One fun fact that I would like to add here. See Bombay duck is the favorite seafood of the batting great Sachin Kendulkar. Okay this is all about Bombay duck. Once again remember Bombay duck is not a bird and it is a fish species. Okay now lastly we have the jellyfish. See jellyfish are not really fish. See the fishes are classified as vertebrates that is they have a backbone. But if you take jellyfish the jellyfish is a dome shaped invertebrate. So jellyfish is not classified as fish. Despite jellyfish as a term fish in it it is not a fish. Okay now let's take the question. Here hill sand Bombay duck all on our fish. So the correct answer is option B 1 and 3 only. Now moving on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This is a pair based question. Here 4 pairs are given. On one side though ops are given and on the other side the rivers bordering the though ops are given. Now we have to find how many pairs are incorrectly matched. First of all know that though means the land between two streams of river. The place where two small streams join together and forms into a big river is called though. In other words though is the land that separates two rivers. Okay now look at this map here. Here the though ops are highlighted with different colors. Now first let's take this though. See this though lies between Bia sunset ledge and not between Ravi and Chinab. So the pair one is incorrectly matched. Now coming to Bari though Bari though lies between Ravi and Bia's. And know that Bari though is also known as Majha plane. So pair 2 is correctly matched. Now if you look at Rachna though, Rachna though lies between Ravi and Chinab and not between Bia sunset ledge. So pair 3 is incorrectly matched. And finally let's take judge or charge though up. See it lies between the Chinab and Geelam rivers. So pair 4 is correctly matched. Here the question is asking for incorrectly matched pairs. Here pair 1 and 3 alone are incorrectly matched. So the correct answer is option B only 2 pairs. See recently the dispute of Satellage Emuna link canal project was frequently in the news. And that is why we framed this question. See the Satellage Emuna link canal is a proposed 214 kilometer long canal with 122 kilometers in Punjab and 92 kilometers in Haryana. The canal connects Satellage and Emuna rivers and enables the sharing of surplus river water from Punjab to Haryana. The Haryana government has completed its portion of Satellage Emuna link canal which bringing it to 85 percentage completion. That is on Haryana's land 90 kilometers of canal have been constructed. But the construction of remaining part on Punjab's land is stalled due to various reasons. And this is why Satellage Emuna link canal was frequently in news. Now using this as an opportunity let us quickly revise Satellage and Emuna rivers. Now let's start with river Satellage. See the ancient names of Satellage river are Zarathras which is a Greek name and Shrutudri or Shathadru which is a Sanskrit name. See Satellage is the longest of 5 tributaries of the Indus river. Know that Jheelam, Chenab, Ravi, Biyas and Satellage are main tributaries of Indus river. Now coming to Satellage, Satellage rises on the north slope of Himalayas in Lake Langa in southwestern Tibet. After that Satellage flows northwestward and then west southward through Himalayan gauges. Then it enters and crosses Himachal Pradesh near Nangal before beginning its flow through the Punjab plain. After that it flows southward in a broad channel where it receives Biyas river. After that it flows another 220 miles to join the Chenab river west of Bahvalpur. See the Satellage river meets the Biyas river in Harik which is in the Ferozpur district of Punjab before entering Pakistan. After that the combined Satellage and Biyas form the Panjanad. That is the link between the fire rivers and the Indus. Note one important point here, Luhuri Stage 1 hydroelectric project is located on river Satellage in Shimla and Kullu districts of Himachal Pradesh. See we even have a previous question with respect to river Satellage. So this discussion is very important for you. Okay, now let's take river Emuna. See the river Emuna is a major tributary of river Ganges. It originates from the Emuna 3 glacier near Bandaar Punch peaks in Musuri range of lower Himalayas. Emuna originates at an elevation of about 6,000 to 8,000 meters above mean sea level in Uttarakashi district of Uttarakhand. Emuna meets the Ganges at Prayagraj which is in Uttar Pradesh. And this is after Emuna flowing through Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Delhi. See some of the Emuna tributaries include Chambal, Sindh, Betwa and Ken. Okay, note all these important facts. Now with this let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about Paramparagat Krishivikas Yojana. If you look at the importance of this topic, see UPC has asked many questions related to themes in previous years. For example, take a look at these two questions. Here this first question about Vidyanjali Yojana was asked in 2017. And the second question about Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bhimo Yojana was asked in 2016 prelims. So the question that we are going to discuss now is very important for your prelims. So pay attention to the discussion. Now coming to the question, consider the following statements regarding Paramparagat Krishivikas Yojana. Now look at this first statement. It is an extended component of soil health management under National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture. See this statement is correct Paramparagat Krishivikas Yojana that is PKVY was launched in the year 2015 and it is an extended component of soil health management under National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture. So statement one is correct. Now coming to second statement PKVY is a central sector scheme. See this statement is wrong. This is because PKVY that is Paramparagat Krishivikas Yojana is a centrally sponsored scheme. Know that in the central sector scheme the entire funding is done by central government whereas in a centrally sponsored scheme the funding is shared by both the center and state governments. Now let's look at the funding pattern of Paramparagat Krishivikas Yojana. See in the case of normal states 60% fund is incurred by central government and the remaining 40% is incurred by state governments. If you take northeastern animal in states 90% of funds are incurred by central government and the remaining 10% are incurred by respective state governments. And for union territories the 100% funding is taken care of by the central government. So once again second statement is wrong because Paramparagat Krishivikas Yojana is a centrally sponsored scheme and not central sector scheme. Now coming to the third statement it aims to support and promote organic farming. See this statement is correct Paramparagat Krishivikas Yojana aims to support and promote organic farming. Apart from this the scheme also tries to disseminate the tested technologies in the organic farming. So statement 3 is correct. Here the question is asking for correct statements. So the correct answer for the question is option C 1 and 3 only. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question asks us to find which of these countries have bought us with Azerbaijan. See UPC has asked a similar question in last year prelims. Now look at this previous year question here. In 2022 UPC asked about the bordering countries of Afghanistan. So the question now we are going to discuss is very important for your exam. So pay attention to the discussion. See Azerbaijan has been frequently in use because of border disputes with Armenia. So there is a chance that UPC might ask questions about the location or borders of Azerbaijan. Now look at this question. Here 5 countries are given that is Russia, Armenia, Georgia, Syria and Iraq and we have to find which of these countries have bought us with Azerbaijan. Now that Azerbaijan is located in southwestern Asia with the great Caucasus mountain in the north. The countries which surround Azerbaijan are Russia and north Georgia and northwest Armenia and west Turkey on west Iran and south and finally Caspian sea on east. So from the given countries Russia Armenia and Georgia alone are sharing bought us with Azerbaijan. So the correct answer is option A, 1, 2 and 3 only. Now let us look at the issue between Azerbaijan and Armenia. See Azerbaijan and Armenia are frequently engaged in a war from the late 1980s. The reason for this conflict is Nagorno-Karabakh region which is highlighted in this map. This region is geographically within Azerbaijan but it is an ethnic Armenian dominated region. When Estonia Soviet Russia began to disintegrate Nagorno-Karabakh's regional parliament voted to become a part of Armenia but this claim was rejected by Azerbaijan. So an Armenian separatist movement was born as a reaction to Azerbaijan's stand. The separatists have captured the Nagorno-Karabakh region and they have declared this region as Nagorno-Karabakh autonomous oblast and later in 1994 Russia negotiated a ceasefire agreement between Armenia and Azerbaijan. See the Armenian government does not recognize Nagorno-Karabakh region as an independent region but it supports the region politically and militarily. And this is the reason for conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan. Now with this information let us move on to the next question. Look at this question here. This question is about the architecture of Kutub Shagi dynasty. Now before solving this question let us take a minute to brush up the basic information about Kutub Shagi dynasty. See Kutub Shagi dynasty refers to the Muslim rulers of Kingdom of Golconda in the southeastern Deccan of India. Know that they were one of the five successor states of the Pagamani Kingdom. They ruled Golconda from 15 18 to 1687 until the invasion of Aurangazep. This is a basic information about Kutub Shagi dynasty. Now let us see the important features of Kutub Shagi architecture. See Kutub Shagi architecture is famous for tomes and multi-storied buildings. See the tomes are constructed on a raised square base. And the main building mostly consists of single or double-storied main building with the tomb and a huge bulbous dome built on a cylinder. See these bulbous domes offer a profile greater than a hemisphere. Apart from this a small lattice wall can be noticed all around the cylinder. See these walls not only cover the cylinder but also give an ornamental look to the dome. In addition to this the buildings are aligned in a perfectly symmetrical manner. And this is a distinct feature of Islamic architecture. Know that the internal ceiling of the dome is painted with motives of the time. See the Golconda fort, Kutub Shagi domes and Charminar are standing examples which showcase the splendid beauty of Kutub Shagi architecture. Here you can see the images of Kutub Shagi tomb, Golconda fort and Charminar. Know that Fatek Darvasa which is one of the doors in Golconda fort is known for its acoustical effects. Here acoustical effects is nothing but sound effects. Know that Fatek Darvasa is also termed as the victory gate and the name was given after Aurangshri's army successfully marched through Fatek Darvasa gate. Now with this information let's approach the question. Note that this first statement, a single or double-storied main building with the tomb and a huge bulbous dome built on a cylinder is a feature of Kutub Shagi architecture. See this statement is correct as we saw a single or double-storied main building with the dome are significant feature of Kutub Shagi architecture. So statement one is correct. Now coming to the second statement Golconda fort Kutub Shagi domes and Charminar serves as an example to Kutub Shagi architecture. See this statement is also correct as we saw this three-year prominent example of Kutub Shagi architecture. Now coming to the third statement Fatek Darvasa which is one of the doves of Golconda fort is famous for its acoustical effects. See this statement is also correct Fatek Darvasa which is one of the doves of Golconda fort is famous for its acoustical effects that is the sound effects. So statement three is also correct. Here the question is asking for correct statement. Here all the three statements are correct. So the correct answer for the question is option D one to one three. Moving on let's take the next question. This question is about Scandinium nitride. Here three statements are given. We have to find which of these statements are the applications of Scandinium nitride. Now before answering the question let us learn some points about Scandinium nitride. See Scandinium nitride has been in use for two main instances. One instance is when researchers from Bengaluru's Javarlal Nehru centre for advanced scientific research discovered a new material called single crystalline Scandinium nitride. Now that this material is able to convert infrared light into renewable energy. Then the other instance where the Scandinium nitride has been in use is that a team of scientists from the same Javarlal Nehru centre for advanced scientific research developed a hardware for neuromorphic computing. In that they used Scandinium nitride to develop a device mimicking a synapse in the neurons. Now coming to the question. Recently Scandinium nitride has been in use. Often which of the following are the applications of Scandinium nitride. Statement one convert infrared light into renewable energy Statement two brain light computing Statement three corrosion resistant coatings. See all these three are applications of Scandinium nitride. So the correct answer is option D one two one three. Now we will see a little bit about neuromorphic computing. See neuromorphic computing is a type of computing that is inspired by the structure and function of human brain. Neuromorphic computing systems use electric circuits to mimic the way neurons communicate with each other and process information in our brain. The goal of neuromorphic computing is to create machines that can learn and adapt in a way that is similar to human brain. Know that neuromorphic computing has the potential to revolutionize the way we process and analyze large amounts of data as well as improve the performance of artificial intelligence systems. Some applications of neuromorphic computing include robotics, autonomous vehicles and pattern recognition tasks etc. Now with this information let us move on to the next question. Look at this question here. Here some names are given. We have to identify the names are related to which of the following options. To arrive at a accurate answer we have to learn about project 17a. See the Indian Navy initiated project 17 alpha frigates which is shortly known as project 17a in 2019. This is to build a number of stealth guided missile frigates and know that a frigate is a small warship. The frigates that are going to be built under project 17a are termed as neel gree class frigates. They are being built by two ship builders namely guard and reach ship builders and engineers and masagan dock ship builders. Know that the neel gree class frigates are being named after hill ranges in India. They are INS neel gree, INS hym gree, INS udai gree, INS duna gree, INS thara gree, INS vindhya gree and INS mayan gree. See these frigates are going to be equipped with some seriously impressive weaponry. They will have Barak 8 surface to air missile which is a joint venture between India and Israel then Brahmos supersonic cruise missile which is a joint venture between India and Russia. Know that the Barak 8 missiles can even be fired from a vertical launch system that can launch multiple missiles at once. Know that project 17a ships are sourcing 80% of material or equipment required for the project from indigenous vendors. The ships are propelled by two gas turbines and two main diesel engines which are designed to achieve a speed of over 28 knots. The frigates have radar absorbent coatings and is low observable which means that its approach could be undetectable for the enemies. Apart from this the radar absorbent coatings also reduces the infrared signals of the ship. Now with this information lets approach the question. Nil gree, Him gree, Uday gree, Dhuna gree, Thara gree, Vindhya gree and Magendra gree are the names that refer which are the following Option A, Hill ranges in India Option B, Indian naval ships Option C, India's research station in the south pole Option D both A and B Here the correct answer is Option D both A and B See these names refers both hill ranges and Indian naval ships That is none other than the ships built under project 17a Look at this question here. See last year two important documents related to population got published. One document is World Population Prospects and the other one is National Family Health Survey 5. So this year we can very well expect a question related to population and associated terms And this is why we framed this question. This question 4 statements about National Family Health Survey 5 that is given we have to find the correct statements. Before we approach the question let us first cover some basic terms. Now first let's take Total Fertility Rate or TFR. See Total Fertility Rate refers to the total number of children born or likely to be born during a woman's lifetime. Okay this is about TFR Then the next term is Natural Replacement Rate or Replacement Level of Fidelity. See a country is said to have achieved a natural replacement rate or replacement level of Fidelity when the population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next and this is without migration. I know that when the total fertility rate reaches roughly 2.1 then the population starts replacing itself. So Total Fertility Rate at 2.1 is called Replacement Level of Fidelity. Now what happens when TFR falls below 2.1 See when the total fertility rate falls below 2.1 a particular generation is not producing enough children to replace itself. That is since the couple are having less children there are only a smaller number of children available to replace their parents. When this happens the population of the country starts falling. Okay now according to National Family Health Survey 5 India's total fertility rate has fallen below 2.1 and reached 2.0. See some of the reasons that led to decline in India's total fertility rate are increased use of contraception, access to better health care, women education increase in the mean marriage age of women and increase in living cost post LPG reforms. Okay now with this information let's approach the question. Consider the following statements with the regards to National Family Health Survey 5. Now look at this first statement except Uttar Pradesh and Bihar all states have achieved the goal of limiting the total fertility rate below 2.1. See this statement is incorrect. Not just Uttar Pradesh and Bihar the states of Jharkhand, Manipur and Meghalaya also have their total fertility rate above 2.1. Other than these 5 states the TFR in rest of the states in India has fallen below 2.1. So statement 1 is incorrect. Now coming to the second statement TFR in urban areas is lower than the tough TFR in rural areas. See this statement is correct. Total fertility rate in urban areas is lower than the tough. Total fertility rate in rural areas. This is mainly due to increased access to health care and education. Apart from this increased cost of living is also the main reason for lower TFR in urban areas. Okay so second statement is correct. Now coming to the third statement Tamil Nadu is the only state that witnessed an increase in TFR between National Family Health Survey 4 and National Family Health Survey 5. See this statement is incorrect because not just Tamil Nadu, Kerala also witnessed an increase in total fertility rate in National Family Health Survey 5 when compared to National Family Health Survey 4. So third statement is incorrect. Now coming to the fourth statement 6 ratio at birth is below 900 in 3 states such as Goa, Himachal Pradesh and Telangana. See this statement is correct. 6 ratio at birth is below 900 in 3 states. The states are Goa, Himachal Pradesh and Telangana. Also note that the two states have witnessed the highest decline in 6 ratio at birth and they are Goa and Kerala. I know that the only state that has 6 ratio at birth greater than 1000 is the North Eastern state of Tirupura. Okay so the fourth statement is correct. Here the question is asking us to find correct statement. Here second and fourth statement alone are correct. So the correct answer is option D 214 only. Now let's move on to the next question. Look at this question here. It is about the tribal festivals in India. On one side festival is given and on the other side tribe names are given. We have to find how many pairs are correctly matched. See we have framed this question because time and again UPC has asked many questions about tribes. Now look at this question here. In the year 2021 a question about tribal languages was asked. So we have to be prepared for questions related to tribes. Now look at this question. Here the correct answer is option B only two pairs. See in this question the pair 214 are correctly matched and the pair 1 and 3 are incorrectly matched. This is because they are interchanged. I know that Vangala is celebrated by Garo tribes and 3 festival is celebrated by Apatani tribes. So they are interchangeably matched. Once again the correct answer is option B only two pairs. This is because pair 214 alone are correctly matched. Okay now let see some facts about these four festivals. First let's take Vangala festival. See Vangala festival is primarily celebrated by Garo tribe in Meghalaya. The festival is celebrated in the honor of Missy Saljong which is a local deity who is considered to be a generous. He is supposed to be the force behind the good things that happen to the Garo community. The festival is considered as a thanksgiving to the local deity. Know that Vangala festival is also known as the 100 drums Vangala festival as loud drum noises herald the beginning of the festival. Okay now the next festival is Kaila poldu festival. See Kaila poldu festival is a harvest come weapon festival celebrated by Garo tribes of Karnataka. Here Kail means weapons and poldu means puja. I know that it is similar to Avida puja that is the worship of arms that is celebrated in South India. See on the morning of Kaila poldu festival family guns and other weapons cleaned and oiled. Then a tokpu that is a flower is placed on each gun and ritual offering of the food is placed on a banana leaf and placed near the weapons. Then they worship Kodava deities and the weapons for the production of their crops from wild animals. Okay this is about Kaila poldu festival. Then the third festival is Drifestival. See the Apatani tribe that reside in Arunachal Pradesh primarily celebrate Drifestival. During the festival people pray and give offerings to four main gods. They are Tamu, Meti, Medvar, Dhani and Mepin. See these offerings are given to pray for a good and plentiful harvest. One of the most unique points of this festival is that Kukkumvar is distributed to all attendees as a symbol of good harvest. Okay now finally let us see about Sekarani festival. See Sekarani is the major festival of Angami tribe in Naha land. It is a 10 day celebration which signifies purification and sanctification that is before going to war. I know that it is also called Paushani festival by the Angamis. And this is about this question. Now moving on. See before getting into the next question. Now look at these two previous questions about biofuels. In 2017 UPSC asked about the limitations of biofuels and in 2020 they asked a question about national policy on biofuels. Also note that last year there was news about Dundian Air Force planning to use ethanol blended fuel. So this year we can expect a question about biofuels. Since UPSC asked questions about limitations on biofuels and national policy on biofuels the only area that UPSC has not explored is the various generation of biofuels. So we have framed the question about that aspect of biofuels. Now before approaching the question let us revise the basics. Now let's take first generation biofuels. See first generation biofuels are generally obtained from food crops like broken rice, sugar beet, corn etc. They are generally blended with fossil fuels. See when biofuels blended with fossil fuels the greenhouse gas emissions gets reduced. See one of the main challenges associated with first generation biofuels is that the diversion of agricultural lands for the production of raw materials for biofuels which leads to food inflation. Okay this is about first generation biofuels. Now let's take second generation biofuels. See second generation biofuels are produced from non-food crops. They are obtained from non-food yields for example wood, forest waste food crop waste, waste vegetable oil, industrial waste and ecological biomass crops. The second generation biofuels emit less carbon dioxide when compared with the first generation biofuels. In addition to this, in the case of second generation biofuels there is no need for the diversion of agricultural land for production of raw materials for biofuels. So these are some of the advantages of second generation biofuels. Now let's take third generation biofuels. See third generation biofuels are also known as all-gay fuel or oil age since they are produced from all-gay. See all-gay leads to the production of all types of biofuels such as biodiesel gasoline, butanol, propanol and ethanol with high yield. See there are two main advantages associated with third generation biofuels. The first advantage is that higher productivity. See the biofuel production from third generation biofuels is approximately 10 times higher than the second generation biofuel. Then the second advantage is that all-gay can be grown using land and water that are unsuitable for food production. So this helps in reducing the strain on already depleted water sources. Okay this is all about third generation biofuels. Now coming to the fourth generation biofuels. See the fourth generation biofuels are produced from genetically engineered organisms. I know that the fourth generation biofuels are carbon negative. This means that they sequester more carbon while they grow than they emit during the burning. See research has been going on to bring fourth generation biofuel to the conventional use. The example of fourth generation biofuels is genetically modified cyanobacteria. Okay this is all about four generations of biofuel. Now with this information let's approach the question. Which of the following statements about third generation biofuels are correct? Now look at this first statement third generation biofuel is produced from genetically modified microorganisms. See this statement is incorrect. The third generation biofuel is produced from all-gay biomass and not genetically modified organisms. So statement one is incorrect. Now coming to the second statement this method of biofuel production is carbon negative. See this statement is also incorrect because it is the fourth generation of biofuels that are carbon active and not third generation of biofuels. Know that the fourth generation of biofuels sequester more carbon than it produces. Okay statement two is incorrect. Now coming to the third statement the major challenge associated with this method of biofuel production is dewatering. See this statement is actually correct. Dewatering the all-gay biomass is one of the major challenges associated with third generation biofuels. Here dewatering as the name signifies it is the method of separating water from all-gay biomass. Okay so third statement is correct. Here the question is asking for correct statement. Here only the third statement is alone correct. So the correct answer is option C3 only. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question. This question is about echlevia model schools. Here four statements are given we have to find the correct statements. Now look at this first statement echlevia schools are residential schools run by the Indian government. See this statement is correct echlevia schools are residential schools run by the Indian government. Then the other feature that you have to know about the echlevia model schools is that these schools have specialized curriculum to cater the specific needs of tribal students. Okay so statement one is correct. Now look at this second statement the main function of echlevia model schools is to impart quality education to the ST students in the remote areas of the country. See this statement is correct echlevia model schools aims to impart quality education to the ST students and the focus is on the remote areas of the country. Apart from this the school will help the students avail professional education courses and to get employment. Okay so statement two is also correct. Now coming to the third statement echlevia schools functions under an apex body called national education society for tribal students that is NESTs. See this statement is also correct echlevia model schools functions under the national education society for tribal students and this body is under the ministry of tribal affairs. While NESTs is the apex body at the national level state education society for tribal students is the parallel body at the state level. Okay once again statement three is correct. Now coming to the fourth statement the grants for the development of these schools are provided by the central government under the mandate of article 275. See this statement is also correct the funding to the schools is provided by the central government. And this is under the mandate provided under article 275. Now what does article 275 actually say? See the article 275 provides for preferential treatment of certain states over the others for receiving additional grants from the center. It says that the states tribal populations on the states containing scheduled areas are entitled to additional revenue to further development of tribes. So based on this article 275 only grants are provided by the central government to these echlevia model schools. So statement four is correct. Here the question is asking for correct statement so the correct answer is option D one two three and four. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about eighth schedule. We all know that eighth schedule is about official languages. See previously UPSC has asked questions about classical languages. We have one in 2014 and another one question in 2015. So it is wise to be prepared for official languages also. And that's why we framed this question. I will read out the question. Consider the following statements about the official languages. Now coming to the first statement the criteria for the inclusion of a language in the eighth schedule is given in the Indian constitution. See this statement is incorrect because there is no fixed criteria for a language to be considered for inclusion in a schedule that is as the official language. And there is also no time frame provided for considering the demands for the inclusion of more languages in the eighth schedule to the constitution. So first statement is incorrect. Now coming to the second statement the tamali language was recently added to the eighth schedule. See this statement is also incorrect because as of now 22 languages are included in the eighth schedule. And these 32 languages are only called as official languages. They include Azamis, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Uriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Urdu, Bodo, Sandali, Maithili and Dogri. See initially only 40 languages were added in the eighth schedule. And know that Sindhi language was added in 1967. Then Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Sandali were added in 2004. And after that no languages were added to the eighth schedule. From this we know that Kurumali is not included in the eighth schedule. So second statement is also incorrect. Here the question is asking for correct statements. Here both statement one and statement two are incorrect. So the correct answer is option D neither one nor two. In addition to this know that at present there are demands for inclusion of 38 more languages in the eighth schedule to the constitution. I have given here a list of languages. Just go through it. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about the Criminal Procedure Identification Act that is CPA 2022. We have framed this question because UPAC has asked many questions regarding acts. The examples include Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act 2016, Indian Forest Act 1927, Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers, recognition of forest rights act 2006 then maternity benefit amendment act 2017 etc. See the questions about these acts were asked because they appeared in news for some reason. Now this Criminal Procedure Identification Act 2022 also appeared in news due to some of its provisions. So this is very important for your exam. Now let's try to solve the question. Consider the following statements about Criminal Procedure Identification Act 2022. Now look at the first statement. As per the act it is mandatory only for the persons who are arrested for an offense committed against a man or child to give biological samples. See this statement is incorrect because the section 3 of CPA 2022 deals with taking of measurements. As per this section 3 category of persons should allow their measurement to be taken by a police officer or a prison officer. And they are firstly persons convicted of an offense punishable under any law. Then secondly persons who have been ordered to give security for good behavior and finally persons arrested in connection with an offense punishable under any law or detained under any preventive detention law. See apart from this section 3 also says that any person arrested for an offense committed under any law need not oblique to allow to take his biological samples except in two cases. One is for an offense committed against a woman or a child then the other one is for any offense punishable with imprisonment for a period of not less than 7 years. Now coming to the statement see the statement is incorrect. This is because giving biological samples is mandatory for the offense punishable with imprisonment for a period not less than 7 years also. So statement 1 is incorrect. Now coming to the second statement. Persons who are detained under preventive detention law should also allow a police officer or a prison officer to take their measurements. See this statement is correct. Now we saw detained persons should also allow to take measurements. So statement 2 is correct. Now coming to the third statement. Only central government has the power to make rules for implementing the provisions of criminal procedure identification act 2022. As per the act both central government and the state government have the power to make rules for carrying out the provisions of criminal procedure identification act 2022. So third statement is incorrect. Now look carefully the question is asking for incorrect statement. So the correct answer is option A 1 and 3 only because statement 1 and 3 are incorrect. One kind request go and read about the other provisions of criminal procedure identification act 2022. See there is hardly 4 pages in the act. If you read it would be very helpful for both our prelims and mains. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question asks us to find which of these points are the applications of stem cell therapy. If you want to know the importance of this topic just look at this previous question. Here the question about stem cells was asked in 2012 UPC prelims. So the question now we are going to discuss is very important for your exam. So pay attention to the discussion. Now before answering the question let us learn some points about stem cells and their types. First of all know that cells are the basic unit of life and it can be classified into two types. They are differentiated and undifferentiated cells. Know that most cells in our body are differentiated cells and they have a specific purpose. This means that the differentiated cells can only serve the specific purpose in a particular organ. For example we can take red blood cells. See red blood cells are specifically designed to carry oxygen through the blood. Now coming to undifferentiated cells the best example of differentiated cells are the stem cells. See stem cells act as the body's raw materials. That is stem cells are the cells from which all other cells with specialized functions are generated. Know that stem cells have the ability to divide and make an indefinite number of copies of themselves. So when a stem cell divides it can either remain a stem cell or turn into a differentiated cell such as muscle cell or a red blood cell. Remember under the right conditions in the body or a laboratory stem cells divide to form more cells which is called as daughter cells. See the stem cells are classified into two main categories. The first classification is based on the formation of cells at different phases of human lives. And the second classification is based on its ability to form into different specialized cells. Now first let's see about classification based on stem cells formation at different times of human lives. See there are three types under this classification and they are embryonic stem cells, adult stem cells and induced pluripotent stem cells or IPSs. See embryonic stem cells are the stem cells that exist only during the earlier stage of development. Coming to adult cells, adult cells are the cells that can multiply when there is a need to repair adult organs and tissues. These cells are present in almost all organs of the human body. And know that adult stem cells are multipotent. That is they can give rise to a limited number of mature cell types usually corresponding to the tissues in which they reside. A most well known example is blood forming that is hematopoietic stem cells. See these stem cells originate from bone marrow and give rise to different blood cells in our body. Apart from this some tissue specific stem cells can give rise to one or two mature cell types and they are called unipotent and bipotent. See the stem cells found in the skin produce new skin cells and they are an example of unipotent stem cells. Now coming to induced pluripotent stem cells see induced pluripotent stem cells are not found in the body but it can be made in the laboratory from cells of the body. And know that the induced pluripotent stem cells have properties similar to those of embryonic stem cells. This is about classification based on stem cells formation at different times of human lives. Now coming to another classification that is the classification based on stem cells ability to develop into different specialized cells. There are three types under this classification. They are 2 tipotent stem cells pluripotent stem cells and multipotent stem cells. See 2 tipotent stem cells can transform into all kinds of cell in the human body. Now coming to pluripotent stem cells they can transform themselves into any type of cell in the human body except those kinds that are required to support and develop a fetus in the woman's womb. And know that embryonic stem cells and induced pluripotent stem cells are some of the examples of pluripotent stem cells. Now coming to multipotent stem cells we already saw about multipotent stem cells while discussing about adult stem cells. See these multipotent stem cells can give rise to only a few distinct type of cells. This is all about stem cells and their types. Now with this information let's approach the question. Which of the following are the applications of stem cell therapy? First one, tissue grafting, second one, cardiovascular disease treatment, third one, treatment of Parkinson's disease, fourth one, treatment of sickle cell anemia and fifth one, cell deficiency therapy. See all these points are the applications of stem cell therapy. So the correct answer is option D12345. Now with this information let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This is a par best question. On one side the names of military exercise are given and on the other side participating countries are given. Now we have to find how many of these pairs are correctly matched. Now before answering the question just look at this list. See these are the list of important military exercise that were held recently. So go through it carefully and try to answer the question. Other than these also there are many military exercise but these are the important ones. If you know these you can use the elimination technique in the exam to arrive at the answer even if you are not aware of some other exercises. I have listed 18 exercises here. You should also know that India has 4 main domestic exercises namely Gandhi Vijay, Paschim Lehar, Vaayushakti and Vijay Prahar. Make a note of these as well. Now with this information let's approach the question. Consider the following pairs. Par-1, X-Dustlik, Indian, Uzbekistan, Par-2, Lamitya, 2022, Indian, Saichelas, Par-3, Abiyas, 122, Indian, USA, Par-4, Dharmagodian, India and Japan. See if you have gone through the list you can easily arrive at the answer. Here all the pairs are correctly matched. So the right answer here is option D all 4 pairs. Now with this information let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. On one side festivals are given and on the other side states are given. We have to find how many pairs are correctly matched. Now before we approach the question let us see about these 4 festivals in short. Now first let's take Batukama Festival. See Batukama is a colorful and vibrant festival of Telangana. It is celebrated by women with flowers that grow exclusively in the region. This festival is celebrated before the onset of winter. See the monsoon rains bring plenty of water into the freshwater ponds located in Telangana and it is also the time when wild flowers bloom all across the plains of Telangana region. So for one complete week women make small Batukamas using these flowers grown in the region. Now you may have a doubt. What is this Batukama? Now see this is only Batukama made using locally grown flowers. Now moving on to Majuli Festival. See Majuli Festival is one of the popular festivals celebrated in Assam. This festival is held in Majuli Island which is the largest riverine island in the world and it is situated in Brahmaputra river. Majuli festival have all kinds of celebrations like traditional music, dance and art performances. The festival is usually held in November and it is a great way to learn about islands, unique culture and heritage. In addition to this the festival is also a reminder to take care of Majuli Islands ecosystem that is threatened by erosion and other environmental factors. Okay so this is about Majuli Festival. Now moving on to see about Sahrul Festival. See Sahrul Festival is a major festival celebrated by the tribal communities of Nagaland. The festival marks the beginning of spring and the showing season. During Sahrul Festival the tribes worship the village deity and offer thanks for the good harvest. The celebrations involve traditional dances, music and feasting on local delicacies. Know that the festival is usually held in April. Okay this is about Sahrul Festival. Now finally let us see about Hornbill Festival. See Hornbill Festival is a cultural festival annual in Nagaland typically in the first week of December. The festival is named after the state word of Nagaland that is the Hornbill. This festival is a celebration of the diverse cultural heritage of Nagar tribes. Hornbill Festival features traditional dances, music arts and crafts exhibitions and sporting activities. See during this festival participants from various tribes will showcase their customs and traditions. The festival also includes a large market where visitors can purchase local handicrafts, food and view rages. Okay this is about Hornbill Festival. Now with this information let us approach the question. First pair, Badukama festival Karnataka. See this pair is incorrectly matched because Badukama festival is celebrated in Telangana and not in Karnataka. So pair one is incorrectly matched. Pair two Majili festival Arnathal Pradesh. See this pair is also incorrectly matched because Majili festival is celebrated in Karnataka and not in Arnathal Pradesh. Now coming to third pair, Sauru festival Jharkhand. See this pair is correct. It is celebrated in Jharkhand. Now coming to fourth pair, Hornbill festival Mizoram. See this pair is incorrect because Hornbill festival is celebrated in Nagaland. Here the question is asking for correctly matched pairs. Here third pair alone are correctly matched. So the correct answer is option A only one pair. Now moving on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about scheduled cost and tribes prevention of atrocities act 1989. Here three statements are given. We have to find which of these statements are correct. Now before approaching the question let us learn some points about scheduled costs and tribes prevention of atrocities act 1989. See this act was created to product the members of scheduled costs and scheduled tribes. And also to provide relief and rehabilitation to victims of cost based atrocities. This act lists various offenses that are related to behaviors which inflict criminal offenses and break the self-respect and esteem of SCs and STs community. The offenses include denial of economic democratic and social rights then discrimination exploitation and abuse of the legal process. I know that one of the important features of the act is that anticipatory bail is not available to the offenders. This means that if someone is accused of committing any atrocity against a member of the SC or ST community they cannot get anticipatory bail. Now let's talk about the amendments. See in 2015 the schedule costs and schedule tribes prevention of atrocities amendment act was passed. This amendment added new categories of actions that would be treated as offenses. These new offenses include god landing with food wear, compelling people to pose or carry animal or human carcasses, abusing SCs or STs by cost name and public, then disrespecting any deceased person held in esteem or imposing or threatening a social or economic by heart. So these are the offenses that were added in 2015 amendment. Apart from this the amendment also established exclusive special courts and special public prosecutors to try offenses under the prevention of atrocities act. After that in 2018 an amendment was made. This amendment removed the requirement of preliminary inquiry. Apart from this the 2018 amendment empowers the senior police officers to file a forced information report that is FIR without prior approval if there is an allegation of atrocity against a member of SC or ST community. Now with this information let's approach the question. With reference to schedule costs and tribes prevention of atrocities act 1989 consider the following statements. Now look at this first statement. This act also applies to crimes committed between SCs and STs. See this statement is incorrect because this act does not apply to crimes committed between SCs and STs or between STs and SCs. So statement one is incorrect. Now coming to the second statement disrespecting any deceased individual held in high esteem by the members of SC or ST is an offense under the act. See this statement is correct as we saw disrespecting any deceased person held in esteem is an offense under SC and ST prevention of atrocities act 1989 and this was added through 2015 amendment. So second statement is correct. Now coming to the third statement the act only recognizes social boycott of members of SC and ST and not economic boycott of the offense. See this statement is incorrect because imposing economic boycott is an offense under SC and ST prevention of atrocities act 1989. Here the question is asking for correct statement. Here second statement alone is correct. So the correct answer is option B2 only. Moving on now look at this question here. This question is about lumpy skin disease. Now before answering the question let us learn some points about lumpy skin disease. Know that the lumpy skin disease is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus which belongs to a capripox virus genus in the poxy wide day family. Know that lumpy skin disease virus mostly affects the cow and the Asian water buffaloes and according to the food and agriculture organization lumpy skin disease was previously restricted only to sub-Saharan Africa but in the past decade it has impacted Middle East, Turkey, Balkan countries, Caucasian nations and Russia. See the lumpy skin disease entered India, Bangladesh and China in July 2019. A note on important point here lumpy skin disease is not a zoonotic disease. Know that zoonotic disease or zoonosis is an infectious disease that is transmitted between species from animal to humans or from humans to animals. Once again lumpy skin disease is not a zoonotic disease which means it cannot transmit from animals to humans. Now let's see how it is transmitted between animals. See the lumpy skin disease virus spreads through blood-sucking vectors like ticks, mites, house flies, mosquitoes etc. It also spreads through contaminated water, fodder and feed. We all know that mosquitoes and house flies infections remain at the peak during the monsoon season. So the veterinary scientists and government officers says that the wet conditions in July might be the reason for the rapid spread of lumpy skin disease infection in our country. Now talking about the symptoms of lumpy skin disease see lumpy skin disease virus attacks the circulatory system of an animal and causes inflammation of blood vessels. Apart from this it also causes lesions in various organs like liver, lungs spleen, lymph nodes etc. which in turn causes epidermis and this makes the outer surface of the skin to get separated from dermis. Now that dermis is the inner layer of the skin. So these conditions in turn leads to formation of lumps or nodules on an animal's body. Then the other symptoms include fever, then increased mucus secretion, loss of appetite etc. See even the disease can lead to death. The post-tomatum details of the infected animals shows that virus caused necrotic vascularities are the death of living tissues in local areas and fibrosis in various organs. The researchers say that such a situation leads to failure of various organs and even truly death. Now as far as the treatment concerned see lumpy skin disease is a viral disease. So there is no cure. Know that the spread is controlled by isolating the infected animals. Now with this information let's approach the question. Consider the following statements with reference to lumpy skin disease. Statement 1 it is a zoonotic disease See this statement is incorrect as we saw lumpy skin disease is not a zoonotic disease that is it cannot be transmitted from animals to humans. Now coming to the second statement it is caused by thepox virus which gets transmitted through the bite of an infected mosquito. See this statement is correct as we saw lumpy skin disease is caused by capricpox virus and it is transmitted through ticks, mites, house flies, mosquitoes etc. So second statement is correct. Now coming to the third statement there is no specific remedy for this disease. See this statement is also correct as lumpy skin disease is a viral infection. There is no specific remedy as of now. So third statement is correct. The question is asking for correct statement. Here second and third statements alone are correct. So the correct answer is option B213 only. Moving on now look at this question here. I will read it to the question first which among the following passes incorrectly matched. Option A Kumara Dara Arkavadi Option B Chambal Kalisind Option C Krishna Tungabhatra Option D Godavari Pranitha If you notice carefully you can find that the given options are the names of rivers and its tributaries. Here the odd one is option A Kumara Dara Arkavadi and this is only the incorrectly matched pair. See the other pairs are correctly matched. Know that both Kumara Dara and Arkavadi are the names of rivers originating from the same river. Know that Kumara Dara river is a tributary of Netravadi river and not Arkavadi river. So the correct answer is option A Kumara Dara Arkavadi. See we framed this question because of the heavy rain and associated floods in Bangalore last September. During the last year rains the rivers such as Kanva Arkavadi and Vrishabhavadi that were lost due to urbanization in and around Bangalore came back to full glory. We will use this as an opportunity to learn about these three rivers. Now first let's take Arkavadi. See Arkavadi river originates in the Nandi Hills of Chikkabalapur district in Karnataka. It is one of the left bank tributaries of Kaveri. Historically Arkavadi river has been used as a source of drinking water in Bangalore and the surrounding regions. See the water from the Arkavadi river fills up Esharagatta, Thippagondanna Halli and Manchanaballi reservoir. These reservoirs supply water to Bangalore. See after the 1980 with rapid urbanization of Bangalore the Arkavadi river lost its glory due to pollution and encroachment. Okay this is about Arkavadi river. Then the next river is Vrishabhavadi. See Vrishabhavadi river originates from a spring at a temple Kadumaleshwara in Maleshwaram. Know that Vrishabhavadi is a tributary of Arkavadi river. This river flows through Bangalore. Vrishabhavadi river is considered sacred because many temples are located in Vrishabhavadi's banks. The popular temples include Duddha Ganesha, Duddha Basava, Gali Anchanaya temple, Gavi Gangadareswara temple, Kadumaleshwara temple etc. Know that this river was also ruined due to pollution. Now moving on to the last river which is Kanva. See Kanva river originates in Magadi which is in Ramnagar district of Karnataka. This river is a tributary of Shimsa river. And know that Shimsa river is a left bank tributary of Kaveri. Note an important point here. The Kanva reservoir is built across the Kanva river to meet the irrigation needs of the surrounding areas. Okay now with this information let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This is a pair based question. On one side temples are given and on the other side the person who builds the temple are given. We have to find how many of these pairs are correctly matched. Know that all these temples were built during the reign of Hoysala kingdom. These temples were in use because they were nominated to be included in the UNESCO World Heritage Sites List. Okay now before solving the question let us revise some basic facts about Hoysala kingdom. See the Hoysalas ruled a large part of Karnataka then parts of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. They ruled this particular region around the 20th to 14th century. This kingdom was established by the king Ripakama II. The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur. But later it was moved to Halibid. See the prominent king of the Hoysala kingdom is Vishnuvardhana who is known for winning the Gangavadi area from the Cholas in 1116 AD. Know that the last ruler of this kingdom was Veeraballala III. Okay now coming to Hoysala architecture the Hoysalas combined the Ravidas styles and they had developed a new Hoysala style of architecture. Now with this information let us solve the practice question. Look at this first pair Belur Chenakesava temple Vishnuvardhana. See this pair is correct Belur Chenakesava temple was built by the king Vishnuvardhana in 1117 AD. It was built in memory of his victory against Cholas in the battle of Thalakard. Know that this temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. So the first pair is correctly matched. Now coming to the second pair Halibid Hoysala temple Veeraballala III. See this pair is incorrect Halibid Hoysala temple was built by Ketamalla who is an officer during the reign of king Vishnuvardhana and not by Veeraballala III. Know that Halibid Hoysala temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva. So second pair is incorrectly matched. Now coming to the third pair Somnathpur Keshava temple Narasimha III. See this pair is incorrectly matched. Somnath Keshava temple that is the temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu was built around 1268 AD by Somnath Dandanayaka who was an army general of Hoysala king Narasimha III and not by Narasimha III himself. Know that the temple lies in Mysore district of Karnataka. So the third pair is incorrectly matched. Now the question asks for correctly matched pairs. Here first pair alone is correctly matched. So the correct answer is option A only one pair. Now moving on to the next question. Look at this question here. I will read out the question first. Which of the following parties are involved in battle of Haifa? Option A allied powers on Germany. Option B Axis powers on Serbia. Option C Axis powers on France. Option D allied powers on Turkey. Here the correct answer for the question is option D allied powers on Turkey. Now let us see some points about battle of Haifa. See the battle of Haifa was fought on 23rd September 1918. This battle was fought between allied powers on Turkey. Here the allied powers include Britain, France, Russia, Italy and the United States. Know that the battle of Haifa was a part of a series of battles fought in the Sinai Peninsula and Palestine campaign during the First World War. Know that in the battle of Haifa Indian soldiers from Mysore, Hyderabad and Jodhpur fought on behalf of British. See our Indian soldiers helped to liberate a strategically important city of Haifa. In this battle cavalry that is the horse force of India was involved. See because of this Indian soldiers participation this battle is very important for your exam. Now where is Haifa located? Now look at this map here. See the Haifa is located in the eastern Mediterranean and it is known for its deep water bay. See earlier Haifa had both a rail network and harbor. So it was a center for trade and commerce. So this made the city strategically important. And this is also one of the reason for the battle of Haifa. Now with this information let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about TB elimination programs in India. Now coming to the first statement, India is working towards the elimination of tuberculosis from the country by 2025. See this statement is correct. Know that the National Strategic Plan for Tuberculosis Elimination was launched in the year 2017. The goal of the plan is to achieve a rapid decline TB mortality by working towards elimination of TB in India by 2025. And know that our Prime Minister Narendra Modi has vowed to end TB by 2025 at the end TB summit in 2018. So statement one is correct. India is working towards elimination of tuberculosis from the country by 2025. Now coming to the second statement, Nikshay Mitra portal is an online platform that provides various support to the TB patients through donors. See this statement is also correct. This statement simply explains about Nikshay Mitra portal. See anyone suffering from TB in India can register their details in the Nikshay Mitra portal and then they ask for help. The person who helps TB patient through this Nikshay Mitra portal is called by the name Nikshay Mitra. See the Nikshay Mitra can provide nutritional, diagnostic and vocational supports to the persons affected by TB. The stakeholders of this scheme include individuals, elected representatives, corporate, NGOs and political parties. And know that Nikshay Mitra portal is being monitored by tuberculosis officers of each district. Once again second statement is correct. Here the question is asking for correct statement. Here both statements are correct. So the correct answer is option C both 1 and 2. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. It is about species of birds. See I have framed this question because recently UPAC has started asking questions about bird species. Now look at this question here. This question from 2020 is about the identification of bird species. And this question from 2022 is about identifying which among these is not a bird species. So likewise we are going to find out which among these options is a bird species. Now look at this first option it is huluk gibbons. See it is not a bird species. It is a primate species. Now look at this image here. This is only huluk gibbons. You should know about this because the only ape species found in India is the huluk gibbons species. Okay. Now coming to second option Himalayan ibex. See this is also not a bird species. It is a wild goat species found in the trans-Himalayan ranges of Jamun, Kashmir, Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh. So Himalayan ibex is also not a bird species. Then the third option blue robin. See blue robin is a bird species. Neelgiri blue robin is a dumpy little bird. It is slaty blue with a tan belly. It is highly restricted and scattered in the Neelgiri hills. See blue robin is also known as the Neelgiri short wing or Neelgiri sholakili. Okay. Now coming back to the question. Now itself you know that the correct answer is option C. But then also we will see what is this Malabar Sivat. See Malabar Sivat is a nocturnal and LSU animal which is related to western gods of India. Okay. And that's all regarding this question. We saw that UPAC is asking about bird species right. So just go through some facts about birds that are in news often. And if you want to know more about blue robin then watch our September 28, 2020 analysis. Okay. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about buddhist councils. On one side buddhist councils are given and on the other side the venue of buddhist councils and the names of kings who patternised the buddhist councils are given. Now we have to find how many pairs are correctly matched. See buddhism is one of the most favourite topics of UPAC. UPAC has asked many questions from buddhism in prilams. Here are few sample questions. The first question about Mahayana buddhism was asked in 2019 prilams. Then the second question about the future buddha was asked in 2018 prilams. So the question that we are now going to discuss is very important for your exam. Now before solving the question let us revise some basic facts about buddhism. See buddhism is one of the major religions of the world that originated from the Indian subcontinent. And now it has spread to large parts of Southeast Asia. And know that buddhism is world's fourth largest religion after Christianity, Islam and Hinduism. See the origin of buddhism is attached to the story of Siddhartha who came to be known as buddha. The traditions, beliefs and practices in buddhism are attributed to buddha. Now talking about the buddha, see buddha was born at Lumbini, Nepal in 563 BC. The birth name of buddha is Goudama Siddhartha. Buddha is also known as Tadagatta and Sakaya Muni. See according to buddhist tradition the predecessor of buddha is known as Kasapa buddha and the successor is known as Maitreya. See buddha attained nirvana that is enlightenment at Bothkaya and he gave his first sermon at Sarnath. And this sermon event is known as Dharmasakara Pravaratna which means turning the wheel of law. Then buddha attained Mahapari nirvana at Kushinagar which is in Uttar Pradesh. Mahapari nirvana refers to the death of buddha. Note one point here, 3 ratnas, 4 major noble truths and noble 8 fold paths are parts of buddhism. Okay now with this information let's approach the question. Now look at this first pair first council Rajgir Ajata Shatru. See the first buddhist council was held at Rajgir around 483 BC. It was held under the patronage of King Ajata Shatru. The council was chaired by Mahakashyappa. Now that compilation of Vinaya Pidaka and Sutta Pidaka was the outcome of first buddhist council. Now that Vinaya Pidaka was recited by Upali and Sutta Pidaka was recited by Anand who was a disciple of buddha. So the first pair is correctly matched. Now coming to the second pair, second council Vaishali Kalasoga. See the second buddhist council was held at Vaishali around 383 BC. It was held under the patronage of Kalasoga. This council was chaired by Sabakami. The main objective of this council is to solve the 10 disputed points over the Vinaya Pidaka. And during the second council the buddhists were split into two groups that is Sthaviras and Mahasangikas. Okay so second pair is correctly matched. Now coming to third pair, third council Paadali Putra Asoka. See the third buddhist council was held at Paadali Putra in 250 BC. It was held under the patronage of King Asoka. This council was chaired by Moggali Putta Tissa. Compilation of Abhidhamma Pidaka was one of the major outcomes of third buddhist council. Okay so third pair is also correctly matched. Now coming to fourth pair, fourth council Kundalavana Kanishka. Know that the fourth council was held at Kundalavana in Kashmir in 72 AD. It was held under the patronage of King Kanishka. This council was chaired by Vasumitra. In this council buddhism was divided into Heenaayana and Mahayana. So the fourth pair is also correctly matched. The question asks for the correctly matched pairs. So the correct answer is option D all four pairs. With this let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. It is about something called DART. We all know UPAC will ask about terms that were recently news write. And the options will be very confusing also. Now we will try to attempt this question. Now what could be DART for those who do not know DART is an asteroid deflection test conducted by NASA. So the correct answer is option C. Now we will see some facts about DART. See DART is the short form of double asteroid redirection test. It is a NASA's mission dedicated to investigate and demonstrate an asteroid deflection by changing an asteroid's motion in space through kinetic impact. So basically DART will deliberately collide with a target asteroid which poses no threat to earth. And this is done in order to change the target asteroids speed and path. Now coming to DART mission see the DART's target is the binary near earth asteroid system DDMOS. The DDMOS composed of roughly 780 meter diameter DDMOS and the smaller which is approximately 160 meter diameter dimorphos. See dimorphos orbits DDMOS. And know that the DART will impact dimorphos to change its orbit within the binary system. And then the DART investigation team will compare the results of DART's kinetic impact with dimorphos to highly detailed computer simulations of kinetic impacts on asteroids. Now we will see about the objectives of DART mission. Firstly DART is a test of NASA's ability to achieve a kinetic impact on an asteroid and to observe the asteroid's response. Then secondly to measure how much the impact changed the asteroid's motion in space using telescopes on earth. Thirdly this mission engages the international planetary science community and embraces worldwide cooperation to address the global issue of planetary defense. So take note of all the points that we discussed. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about 4x reserves. See in the year 2013 a similar question was asked and it was also about 4x reserves. So we will try and solve the question. Which of the following is are included under 4x reserves? US Treasury bills special drawing rights reserve tranche gold reserves have you found the answer? See the correct answer to the question is option D 1 2 3 and 4. See all of these are included under 4x reserves ok. Now let us revise some facts about 4x reserves. See foreign exchange reserves are simply 4x reserves or assets held on a reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies. This includes bonds, treasury bills and other government securities. Here note that these foreign exchange reserves are an important component of balance of payment and essential element in the analysis of an economist's external position. Now coming to India's 4x reserve. See India's 4x reserves include firstly foreign currency assets. Foreign currency assets constitutes the large portion of India's 4x reserves. Foreign currency assets are maintained as a multi-currency portfolio which comprises of major currencies such as US dollar, euro, pound sterling, Japanese chain etc. And these currencies are valued in terms of US dollars. Secondly gold reserves. Note that the gold reserves are maintained by RBI. The value of the gold reserves is expressed either in US dollars or in Indian rupee. So gold reserves are also included in India's 4x reserve. Then thirdly special drawing rights. See special drawing rights are an artificial currency instrument created by International Monetary Fund in 1969. See International Monetary Fund uses them for internal accounting purposes. Note that the value of special drawing rights is calculated from a weighted basket of major currencies such as US dollar, euro, Japanese yen, Chinese renminbi and British pound. Special drawing rights are also included in India's 4x reserves. Then fourthly reserve position with International Monetary Fund. See IMF is funded through its members and their quota contributions. The reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. In other words a portion of a member country's quota can be withdrawn free of exchange at its own discretion. So these are the things that you should know about 4x reserves. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about Chief of Defence staff which is shortly called as CDS. Now before solving the question let us see some basic information about Chief of Defence staff. First of all know that Chief of Defence staff is the rank of a 4 star general. See initially the recommendation for creation of CDS Post was made by a group of ministers in 2001 who studied the Cargill Review Committee report and know that the CDS Post was created in 2019 based on the recommendations of left-wing and general Sheikh Attar committee. The salary of CDS will be equivalent to 3 service chiefs. Now talking about the functions of CDS see the Chief of Defence staff acts as the principal military advisor to the Union Defence Minister and this is on all tri-services matters. Apart from this he also acts as a military advisor to the nuclear command authority. Also the CDS is the permanent chairman of the staff committee and he will perform certain functions like administering the tri-service organizations. In addition to this the CDS also heads the newly created department of military affairs in the Ministry of Defence. In addition to this the Chief of Defence staff is a member of Defence Equation Council and he is also a member of Defence Planning Committee. Okay now who is our current CDS? See left-wing and general Anil Chauhan is the current CDS and know that he is the second CDS while the first one is General Bipin Rawat who died in a helicopter crash in 2021. Okay now with this information let's solve the question. Now look at this first statement CDS will not exercise any military command. See this statement is correct because CDS is vested with authority to provide directives to Chiefs of three forces but he does not enjoy any command authority over the three services that is Army Air Force and Navy. Okay so statement one is correct. Now coming to the second statement CDS is the permanent chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. See this statement is also correct. As we saw Chief of Defence staff is the permanent chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. So statement two is correct. Now coming to the third statement the Office of CDS does not come under the Amit of Right to Information Act 2005. See this statement is wrong because the Office of CDS comes under the Amit of RTI Act 2005. So third statement is wrong. Here the question is asking for correct statement so the correct answer is option B one and two only. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about National Investigation Agency that is NIA and Central Bureau of Investigation that is CBI. Now before answering the question let us see some points about both CBI and NIA. See Central Bureau of Investigation that is CBI was established in the year 1963. It was established according to the recommendations of Santanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption. Here note that CBI is not a statutory body. This means that the CBI was not created by an Act of Parliament and it was created by an Executive Resolution. But note that the CBI derives some of its powers from the Delhi Police Special Establishment Act 1946. Now coming to National Investigation Agency that is NIA. NIA was established in the year 2008 post the Mumbai Taj Terror Attacks. See NIA is a statutory body which derives its power from National Investigation Agency Act 2008. Now coming to the ministries under which these institution functions. See CBI functions under the Ministry of Personal Public Grievances and Pensions. While NIA functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Okay now coming to the roles assigned to CBI and NIA. See CBI functions with a special mandate of preventing corruption by union government employees who are holding high offices. CBI also takes up certain type of cases which remain unsolved by the state police on demand by the concerned state police or under the order of concerned high court. Okay now coming to NIA. NIA's primary objective is to stop terrorist activities being carried out within the territory of India. This means that NIA specializes in counter terrorism related investigations. Here note that the NIA Act was amended in the year 2019 to allow the NIA to investigate few other offenses. Offenses include human trafficking offenses related to counterfeit currency or back notes manufacture or sale of prohibited arms, cyber terrorism and offenses under the Explosive Substances Act 1998. Okay so these are the new areas in which NIA can start investigation according to the 2019 amendment. Now coming to the organization of CBI. Presently the CBI has seven divisions which are working under the union government. They are firstly anti-corruption division, secondly economics offenses division, thirdly administration division, fourthly special crimes division, fifthly direct rate of prosecution, sixthly central foreign science laboratory division and finally policy and international police cooperation division. Okay now with this information let's see the question. Now look at the first statement NIA is a statutory body whereas CBI is not a statutory body. See this statement is correct as we saw NIA was created under National Investigation Agency Act 2008. So it is a statutory body but if you take CBI, CBI is not created by an app of parliament and it was created by an executive resolution. So CBI is not a statutory body. So statement one is correct. Now coming to the second statement NIA functions under the ministry of personal public grievances and pensions while CBI functions under the ministry of home affairs. Here the ministries are interchangeably given as we saw CBI functions under the ministry of personal public grievances and pensions while NIA functions under the ministry of home affairs. So statement two is incorrect. Here the question is asking for correct statements. Here first statement correct. So the correct answer is option A one only. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is about unlawful activities prevention act that is UAPA. Now before solving this question let us revise some points about unlawful activities prevention act that is UPPA. See the UPPA was passed in 1967 during the reign of the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. This act deals with activities that threaten the sovereignty of India. Now that the enforcement body of this act is the national investigation agency that is NIA which is India's central counter-terrorism agency. Now let us see some of the key provisions of unlawful activities prevention act. Now first let's take section 15. See section 15 of UAPA defines unlawful activities. It says that the unlawful activities are an action which intends to bring secession or disrupts the sovereignty and territorial integrity of India. Then the other important provision is that nonlawful activities prevention act empowers the central government to declare any association as an unlawful association by notification in the official gasset. Then under the act the central government may designate an organization as a terrorist organization based on foregrounds. Firstly the organization commits or participates in any acts of terrorism then secondly if the organization prepares for terrorism and thirdly if the organization promotes terrorism and finally if the organization is involved in terrorism. See if any of the organizations is involved in any of these four activities then they may be designated as a terrorist organization by the central government as per unlawful activities prevention act. And note on another fact here nonlawful activities prevention act was amended in 2019 and that act came to be known as UAPA amendment act 2019. See this amendment act additionally supports the central government to designate individuals as terrorists on the same grounds to that of organizations. Now talking about the punishment see as per the unlawful activities prevention act the unlawful or terrorist activities are punishable with imprisonment for a term at least five years to life imprisonment. Even the death penalty can be given for a terrorist act which resulted in death. Apart from this the unlawful activities prevention act allows for the confiscation of properties used for any unlawful activities. Now coming to the jurisdictions of unlawful activities prevention act see the jurisdiction of UAPA is applicable to Indians outside India then persons in the service of government and wherever they are posted and finally the persons on ships and aircrafts registered in India. Now with this information let's solve our practice question. Now look at this four statement national investigation agency is the enforcement body of unlawful activities prevention act as we saw this statement is correct NIS the enforcement body of UAPA. Now coming to the second statement central government is empowered to designate an individual as terrorists as per the UAPA amendment act 2019 as we saw this statement is also correct UAPA was amended in 2019 and this empowered the central government to designate an individual as terrorists okay. Now look carefully the question is asking for incorrect statements here both one and two are correct so the correct answer is option D neither one nor two. Now let's move on to the next question. Now look at this question here this question is about biological oxygen demand and chemical oxygen demand now before solving the question let us see some points about BOD and COD. See to have a better understanding about biological oxygen demand and chemical oxygen demand that is BOD and COD we have to first learn about dissolved oxygen that is DO. See dissolved oxygen is a measure of how much oxygen is dissolved in the water and note that this is the amount of oxygen available to living aquatic organisms okay. Now with this basics let's learn about BOD. See BOD or biological oxygen demand is all about the tiny organisms that live in the water bodies such as lakes, ponds etc. See while the tiny organisms consume the organic material in water it use up oxygen in the process. So the oxygen needed to break biodegradable organic matter in water bodies is called biological oxygen demand or BOD. Therefore BOD is a great way to analyze organic pollution in the water. If there is high BOD it means there is a lot of organic stuff in the water and that can be bad news for fish and other aquatic life okay. Now coming to COD COD is different from BOD. COD measures the total amount of organic material in the water. It includes the stuff that can be broken down by those little organisms we were just talking about. So if the COD is high it means there is lot of organic material in the water and note an interesting fact here COD is usually higher than BOD in the same water sample. This is because COD measures both biodegradable and non biodegradable organic matter while BOD only measures biodegradable organic matter. So if you only measure BOD you might not be getting the full picture okay. Know that the COD test is quicker and easier to perform than the BOD test. But the BOD test is considered more accurate and reliable. This is because BOD test measures the actual amount of oxygen used by microorganisms to break down organic matter okay. Now with this information let's approach the question. Look at this first statement BOD is usually higher than COD in the same water sample. As we saw COD is usually higher than BOD. This is because COD measures both biodegradable and non biodegradable organic matter. While BOD only measures biodegradable organic matter so statement 1 is incorrect. Now coming to the second statement a high BOD indicates a large amount of organic material in the water. This statement is correct. As we saw biological oxygen demand indicates a large amount of organic material present in the water. So statement 2 is correct. Now coming to the third statement the COD test is quicker and easier to perform than the BOD test. This statement is also correct. As we saw COD is done quickly and easily as compared with BOD. So statement 3 is correct. Here the question is asking for correct statements. Here statement 2 and 3 alone are correct. So the correct answer is option C213 only. Now let's move on to the final question. Now look at this question here. This question is about great 100 rhinoceros. Now before answering this question let us learn some points about 100 rhinos. See the greater 100 rhinos is one among the five different species of rhino present in the world. The other four rhino species include Sumatran rhino, Javan rhino, Black rhino and White rhino. And know that there are three species of rhinos present in Asia. They are greater 100 rhino, Javan and Sumatran rhinos. And know that only the great 100 rhino is found in India. And it is also known as Indian rhino and it is the largest of the rhino species. The greater 100 rhino lives in Northern India and Southern Nepal. And they inhabit reverent grasslands and adjacent woodlands. In India rhinos are mainly found in Assam, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh. Know that the greater 100 rhinos are herbivorous. That is they feed on plants and the pasture land. See when they are not grazing on land they like to immerse themselves in water. When they immerse in the water they also graze on aquatic plants. In this period of 100 rhinos last approximately 15 to 16 months. And the mothers give birth to one calf every 2 to 3 years. Now talking about the conservation status of rhinos, see the 100 rhinos are categorized as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. And in the sites that is the convention on international trade in endangered species of wild fawn and flora, the 100 rhinoceros is protected under Appendix 1 of sites. Also know that Assam has an estimated 2,640 rhinos in 4 protected areas. The areas include Pavitura Wildlife Sanctuary, Rajyugandhi Orang National Park, Kazeeranga National Park and Manas National Park. About 102 rhinos are protected in the Pavitura Wildlife Sanctuary. Now with this information let's approach the question. Here 4 statements are given. We have to find how many statements are correct. Look at the first statement. The only place where it currently exists in India is Kazeeranga National Park. See this statement is incorrect because as we saw 100 rhinos are found in 4 protected areas in Assam. So statement 1 is incorrect. Commit to second statement it is classified as vulnerable by the IUCN. See this statement is correct. Great 100 rhinos are categorized as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. So statement 2 is correct. Now commit to third statement they typically prefer to be a part of a herd. See this statement is incorrect because the great 100 rhinos usually enjoy being alone except for female with Yngwan. So 100 rhinos do not live as a herd. So statement 3 is incorrect. Now commit to the fourth statement they are smaller than Sumateran Rhino which is the largest rhinos species in the world. As we saw 100 rhinos are the largest rhinos species in the world and not Sumateran Rhino. So statement 4 is also incorrect. Here only second statement alone is correct. So the correct answer is option A only one statement. And we have came to the end of this session. I hope this session is very useful for you. We found this video to be useful. Do comment and share it with your friends. And don't forget to subscribe to Shankar Is Academy YouTube channel. Thank you for listening.