 Hello friends, my name is Dilip Pratap Singh Shakhawat, I have secured all India rank 72 in civil service examination 2018, my optional subject was public administration, today I am here to discuss the preliminary examination 2019 paper with you. A general overview about the preliminary examination which happened a couple of days ago is that the paper has a mix of both some simple questions, some factual questions, well as some difficult questions also. So, I can categorize it in a moderately tough paper as compared to the last year's paper in 2018, I think it was on the easier side, the cutoff may raise a few numbers above the last year's cutoff. So, now as we go throughout the paper, I will discuss the sections of economy, geography and polity. So, first of all we will deal with the questions related to economy, in a general overview I can say that economics this year was very simple and the questions were very basic. If a person has a command on the basics of the economy like the very basics which are given the NCRTs, I think he will do good in this year's examination. Starting with the questions, first we will see third question we will deal with the economy section and the third question is related to the global competitiveness report and this is often in news and this is yearly report published by the World Economic Forum. So, this is a very simple question and the correct answer is C. Question number 19 is about Airtel innovation mission and this again was a simple question and the correct answer is C, Nithya Yog and this is relevant because this is often in news and a very good work is being done by the government of India in this domain, in the innovation domain especially with the Airtel tinkering labs etcetera coming up. This is again a very significant question and coming from current affairs. Question number 24, question number 24 is about in official poverty lines are higher in some states. The reason for this is that price level vary from state to state. So, answer for this is going to be B. Question number 37, among the following which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last 5 years. Now the options are China, India, Manware and Vietnam. Now these 4 countries all the countries are very good producers of rice and they also export. But India has occupied the top position in the last 2015 it occupied the last top position in terms of exports and hence it has remained that retained that spot. So, if we go by the average also the correct option is B India. Question number 48, this question is related to the coal sector in India. The first and this is a statement type question and there are 3 statements given and we have to find out which statements are correct and which are wrong. So, the first statement goes is coal sector was nationalized by the government of India under Indra Gandhi. So, this is a very correct statement and it was nationalized in the year 1970, so this option is correct. Now second statement is now coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis. So, this is a completely wrong statement as the coal allocation in India is done on the basis of auctions. The third statement is till recently India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production. So, this is completely wrong statement because India is not self-sufficient and we still import a large quantity of coal into India. So, the correct option for this is A1 only. Now coming to question number 60, as per the industrial employment standing orders central amendment rules 2018. So, this is a very recent current of his which happened recently one year ago. If rules for fixed term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms companies to lay off workers. This is a correct statement because if the term of the employee is fixed suppose it is 3 months. So, after 3 months the owner of the company has the right to fire that worker without any legal consequences. So, this is a correct option and the second statement is no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workmen. So, this again is a very important provision and in under this these order and the most important thing about this is that in India ease of doing business is very important thing which we are focusing upon and the both the statements are directly being linked to ease of doing business. So, that the firm operates in a smooth manner. So, in this context also option C is correct both 1 and 2 are right and moving forward. Question number 61, question number 61 again is a very traditional question and the question is the service area approach was implemented under the purview of which scheme. So, the correct answer is B lead bank scheme because it adopts a service area approach and in this a district is considered a specific area under which the bank has to lead the operations it has to expand the banking channel in that district. So, this is a very traditional question if you go through any of the basic books of economics you will find this thing in the initial chapter itself. Question number 63, consider the following statements most of India's external debt is owed by government entities. So, this is a completely wrong statement because in India we have a huge private sector and a lot of debt is also in the form of external commercial borrowings. So, this is wrong. Secondly all of India's external debt is dominated in US dollar. So, this is also a wrong statement because most of the debt is denominated in US dollars but not all of it because the debt is in Indian rupee also and some of the SDR as well. So, the correct option for this question is D neither one nor two. Question number 64, which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India. So, this again is a very basic question if you know the basics of banking you will easily find out the correct option. The correct option is deposits B because the bank has to pay the interest of all the deposits which it has be time deposits or fixed deposits etc. So, this is again a very simple question and the correct answer is B. Question number 65, in the context of India which of the following factors is our contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis. Now, this again is a very important question from the aspect of current affairs. If you are following the current affairs the economy section of the newspaper, I think you will be easily able to solve this question. The first statement is the foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector. Now, see what happens is when rupee loses its value the foreign exchange it comes as a hedge. So, in this way the first statement is correct because the foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector will provide that hedge so that rupee recovers in a efficient manner. Now, again the second statement is wrong because increasing the government expenditure further government will be spending more rupee into the market and with more rupee the rupee will again lose its value so it is counterproductive. So second statement is wrong and third again remittances from Indians abroad. So, it is basically forex coming into India so in this 1 and 3 statements are correct and the correct option is B. Option number 67 which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly. This again was in news for many years if we see in the past. So, this is important in the context of people who want to invest in the Indian market in the equity specifically but they do not want to get registered with SEBI. So, in this context this was important and the correct option is D that is participatory notes and it is in the short form is very very famous the P notes which is often seen in the newspaper. So, the correct option is D. Question number 70 with reference to India's 5 year plans this again is a very basic question if a person is familiar with the planning system in India which came into being after the after India got independence. So, that person will be easily able to solve this question because in this question the statement number 3 is very very significant. The statement number 3 is in the 5th 5 year plan for the first time the financial sector was included as an integral part of the plan. This is a wrong statement because it was the 3rd 5 year plan in which this financial sector was included because at that time the Indira Gandhi government it nationalized around 14 banks so this was a wrong statement. If we exclude statement number 3 then we are left with only 2 options that is A or B and in this question as well the correct answer is B because in the first statement it is stated that from the 2nd 5 year plan there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital goods industry yes there was a move towards heavy industries but substitution is a 2 extreme statement and hence this statement is wrong the correct answer is B 2 only. So, statement number 71 with reference to the Asian infrastructure in western bank this again was in news many a times and because India being a major stakeholder here and this dealing with the world financial system the global governance as well this question becomes significant and this was asked earlier also though in a different context. So, we will deal with this the first statement says AIIB has more than 80 member nations. So, this is a correct statement it has more than 100 members presently India is the largest stakeholder in AIIB this is a wrong statement because it is very clear to everyone who is following the current affairs that China is the largest stakeholder in this bank. So, statement 2 is wrong and the statement 3 again is a wrong statement AIIB does not have any members outside Asia so New Zealand and Australia being the members of the AIIB this statement again becomes wrong. So, the correct answer is A 1 only question number 72 what was the purpose of inter creditors agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently. So, this question pertains to the current NPA issues we are having in India the non-performing assets which are ailing the banking system in India. So, this was related to that and if we go logically also the correct option is D because it states the aim to foster resolution of stressed assets of 50 crore or above which are under consortium lending. So, consortium means when a group of financial institutions and banks lend to a particular entity and when that entity defaults on the loan then this comes into picture and this was facilitated because many a times the agreement between the respective banks was not easy to arrive upon. So, in this way the correct answer is D question number 73 again a very simple question the chairman of public sector banks are selected by the banks board bureau. This was a body set up in 2016 and the correct option is A and this is a body banks board bureau which recommends the chairman of the public sector banks and also some of the private sector banks. So, in this way the correct option is A. Question number 74, question number 74 is about the petroleum and natural gas regulatory body being the first regulatory body set up in India this statement is not correct. The second statement about task of PNGRB to ensure the competitive market for gas is correct and third statement also about appeals against the decision of PNGRB is also correct. So, answer for this is going to be B means a statement 2 and 3 are correct. Question number 77, which one of the following is not a sub index of world banks is of doing business index. So, this question again can be solved by the technique of elimination. So, first of all we have to find that which options are correct. So, if we see option B paying taxes again a very important component of ease of doing business. So, this cannot be the right answer registering property again it is a very important part of doing business. So, this again cannot be the right answer and the D option is dealing with construction permits again permit system in India is again in any country for that matter is very very important if we see in the context of setting up a business. So, these three are very very logically relating to the ease of doing business. So, if we eliminate all these three the correct option comes to answer A option A which is maintenance of law and order which is of though indirectly related but not directly related as compared to the other options. So, the correct answer is A. Question number 79, the economic cost of food grains to the food corporation of India is minimum support price and bonus if any paid to the farmers plus. The correct option in this is option C because it is including procurement incidentals and distribution cost. So, this is a very logical answer and in this if we go logically also there are certain procurement costs which comes with the procurement which the FCI does throughout the country and again the distribution cost. So, these two costs add up to the total cost of the food corporation of India. So, if you see the other options somewhere they are not fitting. So, the correct option is C. Question number 82, consider the following statement this is related to the purchasing power parity. So, this again is a very basic question related to the economics and the one candidate who is familiar with these basics I think he will be easily able to crack this question, purchasing power parity the statement one I am reading the purchasing power parity exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries. So, this is a very absolutely correct statement and we compare the same basket of goods and services for having that uniformity throughout the world. And so, this is the parameter by which we go. Statement number 2 in terms of PPP dollars India is the sixth largest economy in the world this is again an incorrect statement because India is the third largest economy when it comes to PPP. So, the correct option is A one only. Question number 84 among the agricultural commodities imported by India which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value. So, the keyword here is value in the last five years. So, if we talk about value we can see that spices fresh fruits and pulses are less valuable than oil especially vegetable oil. And India if we know the government is also considering this thing that the cost of vegetable oil import is continuously increasing and India imports around 70% of its vegetable oil demands by imports. So, this again is a very easy question if a person is familiar with what is happening in the current affairs and also if we reach the question very carefully if he goes to the keyword value easily able to find out the right answer. So, the correct option is D vegetable oils. Question number 86 which one of the following is not the most likely measure the government or RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee. So, again as earlier we have seen a question related to Indian rupee. This is again a very simple question if you are familiar with the basics of Indian economy you will be easily able to guess the answer. So, the correct answer here is following an expansionary monetary policy. So, an expansionary monetary policy with infuse more rupee in the market and this will again be counterproductive. So, the correct answer is D. Consider the following statement. So, this is a question having three statements and we have to find out that which statements are correct. So, here it is related to the storage of payment system data that is popularly known as the data net tax which was recently in use. So, the first statement is that they shall ensure the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India. So, this is correct and this is in line with the recent data production guidelines which we have and the committee of BN Sri Krishna was also set up in this regard. So, the first option is very very logical and correct also. Now, going to the second option they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises. So, this is again a very basic thing which everybody must know that in India we have a free market and hence a thing cannot be restricted to the public sector enterprises. So, statement 2 is automatically it can be staked out and we are left with statement 3. They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the controller and alter general of India by the end of the calendar year. So, this again is an incorrect statement. So, the correct option is A1 only. Question number 88 which of the following adopted a law on data production and privacy for the citizens known as general data protection regulation in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May 2018. This again is a very simple question and this was always in the news with related to the data production issue and in India also we are having a huge study over these guidelines because these were implemented by the European Union and it is also serving as a framework as a starting point to the law which India will formulate over this. So, the correct option is C the European Union. Question number 90 the money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following. So, this again is a very fundamental question of Indian economy and the correct answer here is B increase in the banking habit of the population because money multiplier increases when the money goes to the banking system and when the money goes to the banking system the bank will be able to lend and it creates a chain hence the multiplier effect increases. So, hence the correct option is B. So, now we have discussed and analyzed the questions related to Indian economy in the freelance paper and my overall analysis is that freelance the economy portion was very very fundamental this time and it was having a good mix of current affairs as well but my tip to the candidates must be that you must focus on the basics. The basics are very important in Indian economy and always follow the current affairs very diligently and try to link it with the basics. So, this again will be a very important trip from my side and some of the sources which I would like to suggest to the students who will be preparing for Indian economy would be the NCRTs class 11th and 12th and after that you have to read one advanced level book and a good book is amazing for Indian economy and furthermore as far as current affairs are concerned economic survey as well as budget forms a very important source for the preparation of Indian economy. So, in this way Indian economy can be prepared in a comprehensive manner and now we will discuss we will analyze the geography portion of the preliminary examination 2019 and the overall analysis of the geography paper the section of geography is that some very basic fundamental questions were asked specially related to the world geography section since environment and ecology is somewhat also related to geography. So, combinedly environment and ecology as well as geography how is having more than 20 to 25 questions this time and this was a huge section if a person has command in these areas I think his chances will be very much more than other candidates who are appearing in this examination. So, in this way we will discuss the geography portion question by question in the following manner. Question number 18 which of the following national parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone. So, the correct option for this question is the value of flowers national park because this national park is located in an altitude range above 2500 meters and this completely comes in the alpine region. Another very important option here is the Namdapha National Park because this is a huge national park which is bigger in the area and it has even the altitude above 4000 meters but since the entire national park is not on that altitude in the alpine region. So, hence the correct option is the value of flowers national park. Question number 20 on 21st June the sun now 21st June is the longest day in the entire year. So, hence this question is significant and also on 21st June we have the international yoga day. So, this again is very very significant in that matter as well. So, the correct option here is option A the sun does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle on 21st June every year because at that time the sun is vertically overhead above the tropic of cancer and hence it does not go below the horizon at the Arctic Circle. So, this is a very fundamental question of geography and the correct option is A. Question number 27 which of the following are in Agastamala Biosphere Reserve. Now see this question is again linked to current affairs because in 2016 Agastamala Biosphere Reserve was included in the man and biosphere program and it was considered as in the UNESCO list as well. So, it was included there as the 10th biosphere reserve in India under the UNESCO's man and biosphere program. So, this was significant in that matter. Now it is asking you that which of the following areas fall in this biosphere reserve. So, the correct option is A that is Nayar, Pappara and Shendudurini wildlife centuries. So, there are three wildlife centuries given here and Kalakkad, Munduturai Tiger Reserve. So, this was a question which has having a mix of both environment as well as geography and also to some extent current affairs as well. And in this question the correct way to go forward is that if you are aware about the tiger reserves in India or some of the important wildlife centuries I think this question will be easy to make up and also since we are having other three options also we can also go by elimination. So, the correct option here is option A. Question number 33 and this question deals with the percentage of forest cover in the four states which are asked and we have to arrange it in an orderly manner. So, the options given are Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha. And now we have to arrange them in the order of decreasing forest cover as a percentage of the total area of the state in the following manner. So, now we will see the different states separately. Now how to go about this question? First of all since the percentage is asked, so we must know that in a small state if there is a significant area the percentage will be more. So, here we have the options as Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Odisha. So, here Madhya Pradesh is the larger state among the mentioned states here. So, since we know that Madhya Pradesh has the highest forest cover but when it comes to percentage Chhattisgarh has more forest cover as a matter of percentage. So, Chhattisgarh will be number one, then we will be having Odisha because it is a significant forest belt in Odisha and it is also having a huge tribal belt as well. So, second is Odisha then we will come to Madhya Pradesh and then Maharashtra. Now Maharashtra again will be having a very less portion of forest cover because of the very fact that it is having some dot prone areas. So, this is one area where we can find out Maharashtra and also it is a developed state, it is a urbanized state many of the towns and cities in Maharashtra are rapidly increasing. Hence the forest cover is not that much as compared to the previous states. So, in this way the correct option will be C 3, 2, 4, 1. Question number 36, consider the following page there are a number of C's which are given and then in the next column there are a number of border countries which are given. Now you have to match the C with the border country. So, here also this question has been repeated from the previous year because previous year also Mediterranean Sea was asked 2 times in the last 5 years. So, this question was significant in that sense it has directly been derived from the previous year questions and if we correctly know this exact location and the area of Middle East if you are familiar with that area we will be easily able to find out this is a purely mapping question and the correct option here is B that is 1, 3 and 4 are correctly matched. Question number 38, now again a matching question and there are a number of glaciers which are given and the rivers which are given. So, here also some of the things some of the glaciers and rivers are famous and some of the glaciers and rivers are not that much known. So, here also we have to use our common sense and in this way we will directly go to the fifth point over here that is Zemo glacier. Now we if we are aware about the geography of India Zemo glacier falls in Sikkim and if we have read about the Manus National Park it falls in the Bhutan region. So, the Manus river it originates from it is a trans boundary river between Bhutan and India. So, this can be eliminated in that way. So, if we eliminate option 5 we are left with two options it the our task becomes easier. So, again in this the option number 3 if we take that is an incorrect option and this is definitely a factual question we must be knowing that and in this way the correct option is option number A 1, 2 and 4. Question number 83, with reference to the cultivation of grief crops in India in the last five years consider the following statements. Area under rice cultivation is the highest area under cultivation of jawar is more than that of oil seeds. The third statement is area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased. Now this question has been derived from the economic survey if a person is thorough with the economic survey at least of two years then he will be able to analyze the trend which is happening in the last few years and will be able to solve this question. So, here the correct option is option A that is 1 and 3 only because second statement is completely wrong the cultivation of jawar is more than oil seeds. Oil seed cultivation is widespread in India and it is everywhere in the country but jawar cultivation is there in the more of the semi-arid and arid regions of India. So, in this way we can eliminate this option and come to the answer that is option A 1 and 3 only. So, we have discussed the questions related to geography there were around 6 to 7 questions and if we analyze this year's questions of from coming from geography we can see there was a good mix of world geography then fundamentals of physical geography, Indian geography as well as mapping and there were derivatives related to environment and ecology as well. So, in this way a very comprehensive study is required from the geography region. You must be very much aware about the fundamentals of physical geography and you must also be very much aware about the mapping section as well. Both India as well as world map you must be familiar with the important regions both in the world as well as India. Again when it comes to India you must be knowing the origins of few rivers few important rivers and then you must be always seeing that which things are news in the in the recent past so that you are able to have that link to the current affairs because it helps you analyze the question in a better manner. So, in this way my tip to the candidates to prepare the geography section in a very nice manner would be that please read the NCRTs of geography specifically class 11th as well as class 12 geography there are two textbooks in class 11th and two textbooks in class 12th. I think these four books are the only things which you need to do very diligently repetitively in geography because in these four books the entire geography is covered in a comprehensive manner. First of all your fundamentals will be very strong and then you have to supplement it with current affairs for example we have seen a question from economic surveys was also asked a question from current affairs was also asked so you have to apply that basic knowledge also. So, in this way geography can be covered in a nice manner and I will suggest the candidates who have a comprehensive preparation for geography. Now we will discuss the section of polity related to the preliminary examination which happened recently the preliminary examination of 2019 and my overview about the polity section is that questions were very basic there was some very simple questions also and compared to the previous years this time twist and turns were very less in the polity section and the tricks which UPAC used to have it earlier in the polity section and some of the doubtful answers. So, this is missing in this year's paper it the questions are more specific more straightforward and there are very less confusing questions this year. So, we will discuss each question separately in the following way. Now, question number 23 this again relates to geography there are some famous places which are given as well as the rivers around which these places have been set up. So, we have to match the correct pairs which of the following pairs given above correctly matched and the correct answer is A 1 and 2 only because we know that Hampi is situated on the banks of Tonga Badra river if a person is familiar with the art and culture and the ancient history of India I think he will be able to get the answer to this question and if we eliminate the option 3 automatically we will be left with only one option that is option A that is 1 and 2 only. Question number 45 now this question pertains to the constitutional amendment the significant constitutional amendments which have happened in the entire political history of India. The first statement is the 44th amendment to the constitution of India introduced an article placing the election of the prime minister under judicial review. So, this is a wrong statement this happened in the 38th constitution amendment and this again can be analyzed in another manner that 44th constitutional amendment was known as the savior of the constitution and hence such a thing cannot be introduced in the 44th amendment. So, this was done prior to it in the 38th amendment. So, this statement is wrong. Now, statement 2 the Supreme Court of India stuck down the 99th amendment to the constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. So, this is a correct statement because in 2015 Honorable Supreme Court has stuck down the National Judicial Appointment Commission which was set up via the 99th constitutional amendment act. So, hence that is this act itself was declared ultra biased of the constitution and the statement 2 is right the correct option is B 2 only. Question number 46 consider the following statement now there are four statements which are governed and this entire question is related to the removal judges which happens in the India and which happens according to the provisions of both the constitution as well as the judges enquiry act 1968. So, in this the correct option is C 3 and 4 because the first option is completely incorrect because this thing happened in the recent past as well as a attempt was made to send a proposal to the Rajya Sabha and the chairman of the Rajya Sabha he rejected that proposal. So, in this way similar power has been vested with the speaker of the Lok Sabha as well. So, this statement is wrong and if we eliminate statement 1 we are left with two options that is B and C and then we have to see the fourth statement. Now the fourth statement has the requirement of removal of a judge the special majority which is required in both the houses of the parliament and this is a correct statement because the special majority of a majority of total members of the house and as well as two-third of the members who are present as well as voting is required for the removal of a judge and hence this statement is correct. So, the correct option is C 3 and 4. Question number 47 now this is a very straightforward question the ninth schedule was introduced in the constitution of India during the prime minister ship of Jawaharlal Nehru. So, this is very simple question very straightforward the correct option is option A because at that time nine schedule was created to put those laws which will be immune from the scrutiny of the honorable supreme court as well as the high courts. So, in this way the nine schedule was created because land sealing acts was placed under the schedule so that it survives the scrutiny of the honorable supreme court as well as high courts. So, the correct option is option A. Question number 49 now this again is a statement question the three statements which are given the parliament prevention of disqualification act 1959 exempts several posts from the disqualification on the ground of office of profit. Now, this is absolutely right statement second statement is the above mentioned act was amended five times. Now, this is a factual thing which is difficult to determine but again we can take clue from statement number 3. Now, let us see what it says the term office of profit is well defined in the constitution of India. Now, this again is a very simple statement which is completely wrong because it is not defined the office of profit is not defined in the constitution of India. And hence if we eliminate statement 3 automatically we are left with one option that is A 1 and 2. Question number 50 under which schedule of the constitution of India can the transfer of a tribal land to private parties for mining we declared null and void. So, this is again a very simple question that is the fifth schedule is the right answer under that schedule we have these provisions of the transfer of a tribal land to for private purposes. So, the correct option is option B that is fifth schedule. Question number 51 now this question is related to the particularly vulnerable tribal groups which are a segment of the tribals in India which are very much vulnerable and some of the tribes are even on the verge of extinction. So, this was significant in that matter because it was continuously induced because the government is also making some efforts to preserve these tribes. So, we have four statements here and we have to find out the correct statement. So, in this question if we directly go to the statement 3 it states that there are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far yes there has been demands of including more tribes into the PVTGs but officially we have only 75 tribes in the country which are registered officially under PVTGs. So, this statement is absolutely wrong and if we eliminate statement number 3 we are automatically left with option number C which is the correct answer that is 1 2 and 4 statements are correct. Question number 52 with reference to the constitution of India prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under article 142. Now, if a person has been following the current affairs he has been reading the newspapers many a times the honorable Supreme Court has invoked article 142 of the question of the constitution which has which empowers the Supreme Court to do absolute justice in a particular manner it gives Supreme Court enormous powers in which it can carry out a certain things by the force of law. So, the correct option here is option B that is the Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the parliament. So, this is the correct option option B. Question number 53 with reference to the legislative assembly of a state in India consider the following statements. The governor makes a customary address to members of the house at the commencement of the first session of the year. So, now this is a provision which is very very common sensical in nature because the same provision we have in the Lok Sabha the parliament of India. So, it is very very logical that we have it in the states as well because in states also the head of the government the D jor ahead of the government is the governor under his name everything is done. So, the first statement is correct. Second statement is when a state legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Now, this statement is completely incorrect because we have different parts in the constitution and the state and legislative assemblies are dealt in a different part and parliament is in a different part and if we do not have a rule pertaining to any of the issues in the state legislative assemblies then we can make a rule for that matter the speaker can make the rule in the light of the constitution. So, in this manner statement 2 is wrong and the correct option is option A that is 1 only. Question number 54 and this question is having four statements related to United Nations Convention Against Corruption as well as United Nations Convention Against Transnational Organized Crime. So, these two conventions has been asked in this question and there are four statements which are given and we have to find out the correct statements. So, the correct option here is option number C that is 2 and 4 and we arrive at this option because the statement number 1 is completely wrong because United Nations Convention Against Corruption does not have a provision related to the smuggling of migrants by land, sea and air this protocol is included in UN TOC. So, this is incorrect. Now, statement 3 is also incorrect because a highlight of the it is states that a highlight of the United Nations Convention Against Transnational Organized Crime is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to the rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly. Now, this provision is there under the UN CAC that is United Nations Convention Against Corruption. So, these statements have been doubled up in certain way to confuse the candidates. So, hence if we read the statements very diligently and if we try to find out the trick which is involved the correct option will be option number C that is 2 and 4 are correct. Question number 55, consider the following statements. Now, this is a question which is dealing with two of the very important acts in India that first is the Indian Forest Act of 1927 and the next is the Forest Rights Act 2006 which was recently in use due to a number of issues. So, the correct option here is option number B. There are three statements which are given and you have to find out the correct statements. The correct option is B 2 and 3 and we can find out the correct option by eliminating the statement number 1 which states as per the recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act 1927, forest developers have the right to fill the bamboos grown on forest areas. So, this right has been given to the forest developers, but not in the forest areas. In the private areas if a person is doing bamboo cultivation that will not be considered as timber anymore. So, this is a wrong statement the correct option is B 2 and 3. Question number 56, which article of the constitution of India safeguards once right to marry the person of one's choice. So, now this again is a very good question which the UPSA is made and the correct option is option number B article 21 and this observation was made by the Honourable Supreme Court in the Hadiya case which was there in the news in the past 3 to 4 years. So, in that context that caption has been asked and if we look logically also the article 21 that is the right to life that article pertains to the right to life. It is an article which is having a number of provisions which are implicitly there and a number of rights had been provided under this article. So, I think it is a much safer option it has a broad per view the article 21 and hence the correct answer is B article 21. Question number 66, now this question states that which one of the following suggested that the governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past. So, this is again a very simple question the correct option here is C that is Sarkarya commission it is that commission as well as the Ponchi commission which stated this as a recommendation to the government of India and this is very significant related to the number of issues which are happening in the Indian polity related to the office of governor and in that context that question has been asked. The correct option is C that is Sarkarya commission. Question number 69, in India which of the following review the independent regulators in sector like telecommunications, insurance, electricity etc. This again is a very good question being set up by the UPSC because it has certain trick also and if we have some logic behind us if we know the mandate of the finance commission under the constitution of India we can eliminate finance commission because finance commission does not have the mandate to review the regulators in India. So, option statement 3 kalimi eliminated and then we are left with only two options that is A and D and now if we see that if we see the statement number 5 that is Nithya Ayog. Nithya Ayog is basically a think tank it does not review the functioning of the independent regulators in India. So, again we can eliminate option number 5 and the correct answer will be A that is 1 and 2. Question number 76, which of the following statements is or correct regarding the maternity benefit amendment act 2017. Again this is a question related to the current affairs and which is an applied aspect of polity into it as well. So, the statements here are the first statement states pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave. So, now this statement is wrong and now moving on to the next statement. Statement number 2 states that enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum 6 creches visits daily. So, this is again a very vague provision and that is not a part of the amendment act. Third statement is women with two children get reduced entire term. This is an absolutely right statement and hence only statement 3 is correct hence the correct option is C. Question number 80, in the context of any country which one of the following would be considered as a part of the its social capital. Now here also it is a very simple question if you have the concepts very very good you can easily solve this question. The answer is D the level of mutual trust and harmony in this society can be summarized in some way as social capital. So, the correct option is D. Question number 81 with reference to the constitution of India consider the following statement. Now there are two statements which are given and we have to find out the correct statements. The first statement is no high court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. Now this is an absolutely wrong statement high courts are constitutional courts created by the constitution of India and those the high courts do have original jurisdiction related to any of the central laws. It can scrutinize those laws and it can make a judgment and to and make an amendment in the law or completely strike that law based upon the constitution and the laws prevailing in the country. So, statement 1 is not right. Statement number 2 an amendment to the constitution of India cannot be called into question by the supreme court of India. This is again a very simple guess to be made and statement 2 is completely wrong because in the past also the honorable supreme court has strike down the constitutional amendment acts all together. For example, the 99th amendment act. So, this is again a wrong statement. Hence the correct answer is D neither 1 nor 2. Question number 85. Now this is a very interesting question and a very debatable question also. The question states in the context of polity which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty. So, in this question there is a dispute and there are two options which are very very close. The option number B which is absence of restraint and option number D that is the opportunity to develop oneself fully. And now it completely depends on the UPSE what answer it goes for in the answer key which it will release after the examination gets over. But as far as my analysis is concerned the correct option should be option number B because it specifically states that in the context of polity. Now if we see option number C and D they are more related to the human psychological aspect and if we see option number B if we see in the terms of polity then option number B could be the most suitable answer most appropriate answer. And but still there is a dispute and I will be going for option number B that is absence of restraint and that is in one way the definition of liberty. Question number 89. Recently India signed a deal known as action plan for prioritization and implementation of cooperation areas in nuclear field with which one of the following countries. Now this is again a very simple question coming from current affairs if you are reading the current affairs magazines very diligently if you are following the newspapers very thoroughly you will be easily able to recognize the right option. The right option is option number B that is Russia. So we have discussed the question related to polity. This year the number of questions were less around 20 to 13 questions for Indian polity and my analysis about the polity portion of the prelims paper is that this year the polity was more straightforward. If you are having good knowledge of current affairs and if you are having good knowledge of the constitution and the laws in the country and if you are having a good hold over the important articles of the constitution I think those candidates will do good in this section of the paper. And going forward my suggestion to the candidates who want to prepare polity very very nicely and want to secure maximum marks in the section of polity is that first of all you must not ignore the NCRTs. For example in the questions like liberty the NCRTs form a very solid foundation of your knowledge of polity. So in this way the 11th class NCRT of polity that is Indian constitution of work is the starting point of a preparation for polity that NCRT has to be revised again and again that is a very good book on polity and class 12th NCRT also that deals with the politics of India after independence is again a very significant book because it has certain constitutional amendments which are made after the independence of India and that again is a very important source which has to be referred. So NCRTs class 11th and 12th moving on M. Lakshmikanth's polity has to be followed diligently thoroughly and repetitively. This is a book which has most of the questions which can be asked in the polity section in all the years of UPSC. This year also most of the question were directly from that book and that book has to be revised again and again because you have to really be very very sure about every aspect of the constitution about every law which is there every important provision of the constitution. So in this way Lakshmikanth has to be revised again and again even if you have read that book 20 times you have to read it again and again for your another attempt. So that is one area where you have to work and then current affairs I think you have to read the syllabus very properly both for the problems and the main examination and then if any current affairs is getting into that syllabus you have to note it down because that will ease your preparation because if we see the question paper today we have many questions which were there in the current affairs for example that article 21 related to the right to marry. So that was in current affairs you have to just apply the knowledge of polity and link it with current affairs. So in that way this section can be dealt very comprehensively and you can get all the questions right in this manner. So this was my tip for the polity section all the best to the candidates. Hello everyone myself Roshan Kumar I secured all India rank 114 in civil service examination 2018. Today we are going to discuss the prelims paper which has been concluded recently on 2nd of June and we are going to discuss it section wise question number one booklet A this is about the difference and minute difference between Jagadars and Jamindars but in question the real answers has been reversed. So the answer is going to be D for question number one. Question number two is about land reform purpose of land reforms which was to ensure that landless people get the land for agriculture. So answer is going to be B. Question number four it is about the chartered act of 1813 the purpose was to end the trade monopoly of British East India Company and to assert the sovereignty by the British parliament on the territory in India. So answer is going to be A. Question number five is about Swadeshi movement the events which happened during the Swadeshi movement like revival of indigenous artisan craft and industries and national council of education. So answer is C is about different organization and the persons who initiated those organization. So all the options are correct about all India and touchability league all India Kisan Sabha and self-restrict movement. So answer is D. Question number seven it is about the Harappan sites in India. So it is asking about which is not the Harappan site. So kindly take note of that it is asking which is not Harappan site. So answer is going to be Sogora and rest other three are Harappan sites. Question number eight. Question number eight is about the Ranyo Ashoka inscription which was found in Karnataka. So it is a place called Kangan Halli. So answer is going to be A. Question number nine it is about Mahayana Buddhism and the different attributes of Mahayana Buddhism like defecation of Buddha, trading the path of bodhisattvas and image worship and rituals. So answer is going to be D. Question four is about Visti means forced labor during the Gupta period. It was considered a source of income for the state and a sort of tax by the people. So answer is A. Question number 11 it is about Kalyan Mandapas which was a notable feature during the Vijayanagara Empire. They constructed various temples. You can observe those temples and about Vijayanagara Empire and its capital in Hampi Vijayanagara. So answer is going to be D. Question number 12 it is about the revenue administration during Delhi Sultanate. The revenue collection in charge was called Amil. Rest other two things are incorrect like ikta system being indigenous and office of Meerbaksis was during the era of Mughals. So answer is going to be A. Question number 13 it is about Saint Nimbarka and the influence of Sikhs are Ahmads are Hindi on Saint Kabir. So both of these statements are incorrect and answer is D. Question number 14 it is about British colonial rule in India and statements related to that about role of Mahatma Gandhi and the consequences of breaking of salt law in India. So answer is going to be B because a statement one and three are correct. Question number 15 it is about eminent personalities related to during the British rule. It is Sarthej, Bhaju, Sapru, K.C. Niyogi and P.C. Joshi. So all three statements and related positions held by them is correct. So answer is going to be D. Question number 16 it is from Medieval history. It is about Mia Tansen which statement is not correct. Can you take note that which statement is not correct? So Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar. This is not correct. So answer is going to be A. Question number 17 it is about the shifting of emphasis from illustrated manuscript to album and individual portrait. It was done during Jahangir. So answer is C. Question number 21 this is about the plants which were domesticated in new world but introduced in old world. So answer for this question is going to be A which is Tobacco, Cocoa and rubber. And this is question number 42 which is mostly more related to art and culture and related things but you will get all these things in history books also. It is about the known places Aliar, Isapur and Kanga Sabati. These are water reservoirs. So answer is going to be D. Since we have finished the questions related to history in prelims paper now I am going to tell you something about which books you should follow for next year prelims and what the strategy you should follow for to ensure that you can solve maximum questions from history section in prelims question. You should just go through the basic books like NCRT books we have to absolutely have to cover the book from first page to last page from 6 to 12 all history books and additionally you can go through Tamil Nadu board history books because they have lot of factual questions and details which will be useful for mostly for medieval history and ancient history also. And for India's struggle for independence for factual questions for taking case for all factual questions like which are being asked in this year prelims as well as previous prelims. So taking note of that you go through a spectrum book because that will comprehensively cover all the factual details. So going through all these books multiple times and revising the questions related to MCQs related to all these things will ensure that you are able to comprehensively address the demand of prelims question in history section. We are going to discuss the environment and ecology section. Question number 22, it is about different species and areas in which they are found. Acyatine line is found in India only. So statin 1 is correct and other two statement are not correct. So answer is going to be A. Question number 28, it is about the features of different type of animals like herbivores for example turtles are herbivores some species of turtles herbivores some species of fish are herbivores and other two statement about marine animals and snakes are also correct. So answer is going to be D means all the statements are correct. Question number 29, this is about different wildlife bluefin machine it is found in Kaveri river it you must have noticed this being mentioned in current affairs in different newspapers. So statement one is correct and statement three is also correct. So answer is going to be C. Question number 30, this is about concerned being raised about microbeats which is being found in various cosmetic products. So they are being considered for harmful for marine ecosystem. So answer is going to be A. Question number 31, this is about awareness about the Himalayan natal which can be used in textile fibers. So for this question answer is going to be D. Question number 34, this is a question about methane hydrate about its features and the reason where its deposits are found. So all the three statement about the this methane hydrate and the deoxidization of methane into carbon dioxide is true. So answer is going to be D. Question number 35, it is about the gases which are generated due to the stubbles which are burned in various fields in different regions like Haryana, Punjab and in some other regions also. So gases which are generated by burning of stubble and crop residue and it is carbon monoxide, methane, ozone and sulfur dioxide all four are correct. So answer is going to be D. Question number 39, it is about different pesticides in agriculture, a carbon, furan, methyl, parathion, forate and triozofos and all these are pesticides in agriculture. So answer is going to be A. Question number 40, it is about Ramsar Convention and wetland management rules which has been introduced in 2010 associated matters. So a statement 2 and 3 are correct. So answer is going to be B. Now this is question number 41 about agriculture, soils releasing nitrogen, cattle releasing ammonia and poultry industry releasing reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. So all three statements are correct and answer is going to be D. Question number 57, it is about Indian patent act and intellectual property appellate board in India. The two statements about Indian patent act and intellectual property board are wrong. Only a statement 3 that plant varieties are not eligible to be patent in India is correct. So option for question number 57 is going to be C. Question number 58, question number 58 is about environment protection act 1986. For this act, the second statement that lays down the standard for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources. This statement is correct. So answer for this is going to be B. Question number 59, it is about solid waste management rules 2016. So for this answer is going to be C, about rules being elaborated about the landfills and identification of site for them. Question number 62, it is about minor minerals, sand being the minor mineral and the authority to different levels of government about regulating the sand mining process. So for this a statement 1 and 3 are correct and answer is going to be A. Question number 68, it is about compensately forest fund management and planning authority. So for this a statement 1 is correct and a statement 2 is not correct. So answer is going to be A. Question number 78, it is about extended producer responsibility. It was introduced under the E waste management and handling rules 2011. So answer is going to be C. Now since we have concluded the environment and ecology section, we will discuss about the strategy which you should follow for upcoming plumes in 2020 and thereafter. So for environment and ecology section, you should go through science and technology and environment ecology chapters related in NCRT. Because both of these are integrated, you cannot read them separately. So complete the science books from class 6 to 10 and biology book of class 2 NCRT, class 5 chapters are related to environment and ecology. Read them comprehensively and practice the MCQs related to those topics. And after that you can refer this IgNU book or NIOS book related to environment and ecology. And also take notice of the current affairs related to all the topics related to environment and ecology which come into discussion in day to day affairs through newspapers and other current affairs magazine. So addressing all these topics through these sources and practicing the MCQs related to these topics, you can comprehensively address this section in preliminary examination. So we are going to discuss right now section science and technology. And we are going to discuss the booklet A and questions in that booklet. So let us start. Question number 25, it is about cloud thinning technology and its application. It has planned to be used for reducing the global warming. So for question number 25 answer is going to be D. Question number 26, it is about pyrolysis and plasma gasification for it is being applied in waste to energy technology. So answer for this question is going to be D. Question number 26 answer is D. Question number 32, it is about use of satellite imaging and remote sensing data. It can be used for all the three applications which has been mentioned in the question for chlorophyll content for greenhouse gas emissions and land surface temperature. So answer is going to be D. Question number 43, it is about hydrogen enriched CNG, its benefits as well as applications. Its benefits are reduced carbon dioxide emissions and it is blending with CNG for fuel in buses. So for this answer is going to be B means a statement two and three are correct. Question number 44, question number 44 is about dew drops not being formed on cloudy nights. So answer is going to be B because clouds reflect the back the earth's radiation. So question number 44 answer is B. Question number 75, it is about the difference between LTE long term evolution and VOLTE wise over long term evolution and its differences. So both the statement regarding these two technologies are incorrect. So answer is going to be D. Question number 75 answer is D. Question number 91, it is about the differences between augmented reality and virtual reality. So a statement three and four about augmented reality and what reality are correct. So answer is going to be B. Question number 92, it is about Danish oven and its reference in current affairs. It is an earlier human species. So answer for question number 92 is going to be B. Question number 93, it is about developments in science and it is asking which is not correct. So three a statement B, C and D are correct. Only a statement A is incorrect. So answer is going to be A that a function chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species. This statement is not correct. So answer is A. Question number 94 is about digital signature and all the three statements regarding the digital signatures are being correct. So answer is going to be D. Question number 95, question number 95 is about the application of wearable technology. For this all three applications like location identification, sleep monitoring and assisting the hearing impaired person, all three applications are correct. So answer for this is going to be D. Question number 96, it is about RNA interference technology and its applications. Its applications in gene silencing, developing treatment for cancer and for producing crop plants which are resistant to viral pathogens are correct. So answer is going to be A. Question number 97, it is about the merger of block holes which has been observed recently and its importance, significance of this observation. This is the detection of gravitational waves from merger of black holes. So answer is going to be B. And question number 98, it is about the multi drug resistance in microbial pathosomes. So for this statement 2, 3 and 4 are correct. So answer for this question is going to be D. Question number 98, answer is D. Question number 99, this is about CAS protein and its application which has been repeatedly mentioned in current affairs in science and technology. It is being used in targeted gene editing. So for question number 99, answer is A. Last question, question number 100, among all four statements, this question is asking which is not correct. So the statement B about hepatitis B unlike hepatitis C does not have a vaccine. This is an incorrect statement. So answer for this question is B. Question number 100, answer is B. Since we have finished the science and technology section, we will now discuss the sources which we should refer to handle the questions which are being asked in this year claims as well as in previous year claims. So first of all we should complete the NCIT books from Class 6 to 10 science books. Those books have very valuable informations and that will be your base for handling all the science and technology questions in upcoming prelims. So please go through them thoroughly from 6 to 10, that will be a comprehensive preparation and then referring to all those things there will be different topics which will in continuous debate in current affairs like which right now we refer to the CAS protein question and this all the application of RNA interference all these questions these are related to current affairs for which you will get the basic material in this NCIT books and their applications will be in current affairs. So comprehensive analysis of NCIT books and current affairs will address all your issues in science and technology section for claims examinations. Don't forget to subscribe with us and press the bell icon to never miss the video on Chanakya IAS Academy.