 So here's a question that you just started, are Highless and Philanus empiricists or rationalists? You know, is it the case that what, Highless is an empiricist and Philanus is a rationalist or Philanus is a rationalist, Highless is an empiricist and Highless is a rationalist, are they both rationalists, are they both empiricists? What theory are they subscribing to here as far as knowledge is concerned? Are they empiricists who claim that all knowledge is empirical? Remember we had Locke, all knowledge is empirical? Or are they rationalists, like Plato or Aristotle, where they're saying there's at least some non-imperial knowledge?