 Good evening aspirants. Welcome to the part 3 problems practice question session powered by Shankara Ace Academy. In this video, we will be seeing more than 35 questions on the problems format for problems 2020. Let's discuss our first question. If you look at the first question, it is about the food corporation of India. If you look at all the statements, here the statement 3 states that FCI ensures the food security of the nation. This is correct because whenever we say food corporation of India, immediately you should remember food security of the nation. This is one of the main mission of FCI. Don't forget this. So, here the statement 3 is correct. But the question asks for us to choose the incorrect statement or the not correct statement. That means statement 3 cannot be in the final option. So, if you see the options, option B and D contains statement 3. So, we can directly eliminate these options, which leaves us with option A and C. Then if you see options A and C, these both options contain statement 1. So, now we have to confirm whether statement 4 is correct or not. If you see the fourth statement, it says that FCI works under the Department of Agriculture Cooperation and Farmers Welfare in the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. But this is wrong. The primary duty of FCI is to undertake purchase, store, move or transport, distribute and sell food grains and other food steps, which can be directly related to the Department of Food and Public Distribution in the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Distribution. You can use one trick here to remember this. Like if FCI does selling of food grains also, so which is a part of consumer affairs, then it is about food. So, this aspect is also given in the name of the Ministry, that is food. Then it does its storage management, move or transport and distribute. This contains distribute and the name of the Ministry also contains distribution. Look, this is just a trick, not a logical explanation. So, just to remember, you can use this trick. Hence, which makes statement 4 as a wrong statement. So, the correct answer to this question is option C 1 and 4. If you look at the next question, it states to consider the following statements. First statement is Mahatma Jyotiba Phule established the first-ever school in India for the education of women in Pune. This is a correct statement. Remember it. Then if you see the second statement, it states he has also founded Satya Shodak Samaj in 1873 to liberate the exploitation of oppressed communities from the hands of uppercase. And this is also correct. So, the correct answer to this question is option C both 1 and 2. Now, if you look at the third question, it is asking which of the following statements is not correct. If you see the first statement, it is like gonorrhea is transmitted much like syphilis. Here the first option is correct because gonorrhea is transmitted much like syphilis. Both these STAs are caused by bacteria. If you see gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium, Nigeria gonorrhea and syphilis is caused by the bacterium, Traponema pallidum. Now, if you look at the second statement, this option is wrong because vaccines are available only for human papillomavirus and hepatitis B virus. And vaccination for syphilis is still in the development stage. But the statement mentions as vaccinations are available to treat human papillomavirus and syphilis also. So, this makes the statement B as incorrect statement. As the question asks for the incorrect statement only, option B is the incorrect statement here. We have arrived at our answer. But for your knowledge, also know that non-sexual transmission of sexually transmitted infections is also possible like through blood products and also through tissue transfer. Then based on the fourth statement, if you see it is a fact, WHO has said that syphilis is one of the leading causes of infant mortality globally. If you see syphilis alone caused an estimated 2 lakhs stillbirths and newborn death in 2016. Now, this next question is based on fiscal deficit. It says which of the following is not a reason for decrease in the fiscal deficit. When we say is not a reason for decrease, it means we have to find a reason for increase in the fiscal deficit. So, if you look at the options, the first statement is increase in the disinvestment proceeds. Now, disinvestment comes under non-debt capital receipts. If disinvestments are done, government will receive money. So, it is a revenue. If the revenue increase, fiscal deficit decreases. So, it is a revenue to the government. So, this means there is no increase in the fiscal deficit, rather it is a decrease in the fiscal deficit since this option is wrong. Then if you look at the second option, it says decrease in the non-tax revenues. Now, the non-tax revenues comes under revenue receipts. If it decreases, revenue also decreases which means fiscal deficit increases. So, this is the correct answer to our question. But also know that option C decrease in the expenditure of social sector schemes, it comes under the capital expenditure. Here, if the expenditure decreases, the fiscal deficit also decreases. Then the last option increase in customs duty, it comes under tax revenues. If revenues increase, then the fiscal deficit decrease. So, which is also the wrong option. So, the correct answer to this question is option B, decrease in non-tax revenues. Now, in this next question, two statements have been given and we have to choose the correct statement. The section 3 of the Armed Forces Special Powers Act of 1958 allows for the governor of a state or the administrator of that union territory or the central government to declare an area of a state or union territory as a disturbed area. And also, the Ministry of Home Affairs has extended the operation of AFSPA, that is AFSPA in Nagaland for another six months very recently. So, AFSPA is in operation in Nagaland. Therefore, this makes statement 1 and statement 2 as the correct statements. So, the correct answer to this question is option C both 1 and 2. Now, this next question is based on the Blue Flag Initiative. The question asks, the program Blue Flag is an initiative launched by which of the following organization? Four options have been given, UN Environment, UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, Foundation for Environmental Education and then fourth option is Greenpeace. Now, here two UN organizations have been given. Know that this is not an United Nations initiative. So, you can eliminate option A and option B. And this initiative is launched by Foundation for Environmental Education, that is option C. Now, you may think this is very simple question, but in the year 2018 prelims exam, there was a similar question in the question paper. So, try to know these small details and facts about some initiatives. I mean, who launched it and where it was launched and which year it was launched etc. Now, also know that this organization is based in Copenhagen and it works to make the beaches and marinas in the world clean environment friendly and safe by giving a Blue Flag certification. The organization also provides a scheme for individuals to reduce the carbon footprint. This scheme is called as the Global Forest Fund. Now, this next question, it states that consider the following statements. The first statement is the members of BRICS nations are also members of G20 grouping. So, you should know who are the members of BRICS nations. The members or the member countries of BRICS nations are Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa. These five countries are also part of G20 grouping. So, this makes first statement as the correct statement. Now, if you look at these second statement, it states the members of Quad grouping are also members of G20 grouping. Now, Quad means four. So, obviously, Quad grouping consists of four nations. Those four nations are India, Japan, USA and Australia. And India is definitely a member of G20 and we know that Japan and Australia and USA are also the members of G20 grouping, which makes the second statement as the correct statement. Since the question has asked for the correct statements, as both the statements are correct, the correct answer to this question is option C, both 1 and 2. If you look at this question, three statements have been given and we have to choose the correct statement. Now, the first statement states a non-legislator can be appointed for the office of Chief Minister in a state if he or she is qualified to contest elections. The Supreme Court has said that the non-legislator when she or he is appointed as CM should be qualified to contest for the election. So, that means a person who is disqualified to contest cannot be appointed as Chief Minister even for a period of six months. That is only a person who is eligible to contest can be appointed as a Minister if she or he is a non-member to the state legislative. So, this makes the statement one as the correct statement because it states a non-legislator can be appointed for the office of Chief Minister in a state if he or she is qualified to contest elections. Then if you look at the second statement, it states a person convicted for corruption under Prevention of Corruption Act of 1988 cannot contest election ever. According to section 8 clause 1 sub clause M of representation of People Act of 1951, the person who is convicted under the Prevention of Corruption Act is not eligible to contest an election from the date of conviction and he shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. So, this means after the release the person is disqualified only for a period of six years not ever. So, this makes the statement as incorrect statement. Now, if you look at the third statement, it states ECA is not empowered to remove or reduce the term of disqualification of a member of the state legislative assembly. Now, this statement is wrong because according to section 11 of representation of People Act of 1951 the election commission may remove any disqualification or it can also reduce the period of any such disqualification for certain offenses. Here it is stated as election commission is not empowered. So, this statement is wrong. Here the question asks for the correct statements. Here statement 1 is the only correct statement. So, the correct answer to this question is option A1 only. Then this next question is based on Char Dham project. The first statement is given as it is implemented in Uttarakhand. Yes, this statement is correct because this project is being carried out in Uttarakhand only. Now, if you see the next statement it states it connects Yamunotri, Gangotri, Kedarnath and Badrinath. Now, this project is named as Char Dham project. In Hindi Char means four. So, remember it will connect four pilgrimage and those pilgrimage are Yamunotri, Gangotri, Kedarnath and Badrinath. So, this statement is also correct. Then this third statement states it aims to improve the road network connecting the pilgrimage sites. This is the objective of this project. So, this statement is also correct. Here all these statements are correct and the question asks for the correct statement. So, here option D12 and 3 is the correct answer to this question. This next question is based on South Asia satellite. Three statements have been given. We have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states it is also called as PSLV 9. Now, remember that PSLV stands for Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle. So, PSLV is a launch vehicle. It is not a satellite by itself. So, automatically this statement is wrong and remember that South Asia satellite is also known as GSAT 9 and not PSLV 9. Then the second statement states it is operated by ISRO for all SARC countries. To answer this question, first you should know which are all the SARC countries. The SARC comprises of eight member states and they are the neighbors of India including India such as Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka and obviously India. Now, this question states that it is operated by ISRO for all SARC countries. Pakistan did not accept the proposal of India for the South Asia satellite and even the initial proposal to name this satellite was SARC satellite. But it was changed to South Asia satellite after Pakistan refused to accept the proposal. So, this means Pakistan is not included in this project. So, this means statement 2 is incorrect because all the SARC countries are not a part of this project. Then the third statement states it is a geostationary communication satellite. Now, this statement is correct. The South Asian satellite was built to provide a variety of communication services over the South Asian region. So, this statement is correct. Here statement 3 is the only correct statement. So, the correct answer to this question is option C3 only. Now, this next question is based on Chilika Lake. Here four statements have been given. The first statement states it is a largest brackish water lake in Asia. Now, this first statement is correct because Chilika Lake is the largest brackish water lake in Asia. The second statement states it is the only Ramsar site of Odisha. Chilika Lake is the first Ramsar site of India. But this statement states it is the only Ramsar site of Odisha. Now, we can say this statement is partially correct only because Chilika Lake is in Odisha and it is a Ramsar site under the Ramsar Convention, which means it is a wetland of international importance. But the question states that it is the only Ramsar site of Odisha which is wrong because Bittarkannika mangroves of Odisha are also listed as Ramsar site. The third statement states it is listed in the Montreux record. Now, this third statement is also wrong because in 1993 Chilika Lake was listed in the Montreux record but it was removed from the list in 2002. It was removed because it was successfully restored by the Chilika Development Authority. Now, here Montreux record is a threatened list under the Ramsar list and initially Chilika Lake was included in the Montreux record due to the change in the ecological character of the lake ecosystem. But it was removed in 2002. So, this means this statement is wrong now. Then the fourth statement states it has the largest lagoon supported dolphin population of the world. Now, this fourth statement is also correct. Chilika Lake has the largest lagoon supported dolphin population of the world which has Ayuravadi dolphins. Here statement 1 and 4 are the correct statements. So, the correct answer to this question is option C 1 and 4 only. If you look at this next question, it states India has joined in which of the following groupings. Four groupings have been given and we have to choose the correct answer from this. The first one is Vasanair arrangement, second is Australian group, third nuclear supplies group, fourth missile technology control regime. India is not a member of nuclear supplies group as of now. So, if you know this clearly, you can directly eliminate option A and D because it has three units option. Now, India has not joined this group because of the opposition from China. China opposes using the card of nonproliferation of nuclear weapons treaty which says that only five nations in the world can have nuclear weapons and these five nations are the permanent members of UN Security Council. Since this treaty is discriminatory, India has not signed it yet. So, that is why China is opposing India to join the group. Now, the other three groups if you see the Vasanair arrangement, the Australian group and the missile technology control regime, India has gained membership in all the remaining groups like India joined the Vasanair arrangement in the year 2017 and it joined the Australian group in 2018 and it joined MTCR in 2016. So, MTCR 2016, Australian group 2018 and Vasanair arrangement 2017. So, this means the final answer should contain one, two and four. So, the correct answer to this question is option C one, two and four only. The question is based on geographical indications tag. Two statements have been given. We have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states, it is a sign which is used in the course of trade and it distinguishes goods or services of one enterprise from those of other enterprises. Now, this statement is wrong because this is the definition of a trademark, but a trademark is different from geographical indication. Geographical indication is an indication used to identify goods having special characteristics originating from a definite geographical territory, which means it does not distinguishes goods and services of one enterprise from other enterprises. So, this statement is wrong. The second statement states, the controller general of patents designs and trademarks is the registrar of geographical indications. Know that the controller general of patents designs and trademarks is the registrar of geographical indications and also know that the office of controller general of patents designs and trademarks comes under the department for promotion of industry and internal trade which comes under the ministry of commerce and industry. So, this statement is correct. The question asks for the correct statements. As statement 2 is the correct answer, the final answer to this question is option B 2 only. Now, if you look at the next question, two statements have been given, we have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states, India comprises of 29 states and 7 union territories. Now, after reading this statement, you may think this is a very simple statement, but actually the statement is wrong because when the erstwhile state of Andhra Pradesh was bifurcated, India had 29 states and 7 union territories because at that time Telangana became the 29th state. But now, when the state of Jammu and Kashmir has been bifurcated, it has been reorganized into two union territories. So, that means from the 29 states, we have lost one state, that is one state has to be reduced. So, now we have 28 states and we have additionally two union territories. So, the total number of union territories is 9 union territories. So, now we have totally 28 states and 9 union territories. So, this statement is wrong. Then if you look at the second statement, it states 4 of the union territories are with legislative assembly. Now, when we had 7 union territories, we know that Delhi and Puducherry were the union territories which had legislative assembly. Now, among the union territories of Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir, only Jammu and Kashmir has legislative assembly, not Ladakh. So, now totally we have only 3 union territories which are with legislative assembly. So, this statement is also wrong. So, the correct answer to this question is neither one nor two. Now, this next question is with respect to Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act of 2019. The first statement states it abolishes the legislative council that was in the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir. Now, this statement is correct. This is because the section 57 of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganization Act of 2019 abolishes the legislative council of the state of Jammu and Kashmir. Then if you look at the second statement, it states it provides for increasing the number of seats in the legislative assembly of the union territory of JNK from 107 to 114. Now, this statement is also correct because this statement is based on section 60, subsection 1 of the Reorganization Act. So, this statement is correct. Now, if you look at the third statement, it states the act provides for the nomination of two members to the legislative assembly to give representation to the Anglo-Indian community. If the left-hand governor feels that they are not adequately represented in the legislative assembly. Under section 15 of the act, the left-hand governor of the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir may nominate two members to the legislative assembly to give representation to women. If in his opinion, women are not adequately represented in the legislative assembly. But there is no mention of a particular community in this section. So, we do not know whether they belong to Anglo-Indian community only or not. So, this statement is wrong. Now, after seeing this statement, you may confuse it with the provisions of the Indian Constitution in which the article 331 says that the President of India will nominate two members from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha. So, do not confuse these two statements. The question asks for the correct statements. His statement 1 and 2 are the correct statements. So, the final answer to this question is option C 1 and 2 only. This question is about Samagr Siksha. In these three statements have been given, we have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states, Samagr Siksha is a centrally sponsored scheme. Yes, this statement is correct. Samagr Siksha is a centrally sponsored scheme. Actually, we have two types of schemes. One is central sector scheme and another is centrally sponsored scheme. When a scheme is 100% funded by the union government and it is implemented by the central government machinery, it is a central sector scheme. But when certain percentage of funding is borne by states in the ratio like 50-50, 70s to 30, 70s to 25 or 90s to 10, then it is a centrally sponsored scheme. And these schemes are implemented by the state governments. So, remember that Samagr Siksha is a centrally sponsored scheme. The second statement states, it subsumes the three schemes namely, Serva Siksha Abhiyan, Rajasthriya Madhyamak Siksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education. Now, this statement is also correct. The Samagr Siksha program is for the school education sector, which is extending from preschool to class 12. And it was prepared with broader goals for improving school effectiveness, which were measured in terms of equal opportunities, schooling and equitable learning outcomes. Now, this third statement states, a massive training program, Nishtha was launched under this in 2019-20. This statement is also correct. Nishtha has been launched under Samagr Siksha. Nishtha stands for National Initiative for School Hits and Teachers Holistic Advancement. So, this statement is also correct. Here, all the three statements are correct. So, the correct answer to this question is option D, 1, 2 and 3. In this next question, two statements have been given and we have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states, Article 16 of Indian Constitution confers powers on the state to make any special provision for women, transgender persons and the children. Now, this statement is wrong on two aspects. First is that, it is not Article 16 but Article 15 Clause 3 of Indian Constitution that confers power on the state to make any special provision for women and children. And as of now, transgenders were not given the same constitutional protection under this article. So, this is the second wrong aspect. So, it is not Article 16. Then, transgender persons are not included in the Article 15 Clause 3, which actually talks about this provision. So, this statement is wrong. The second statement states, according to Juvenile Justice Karen Protection of Children Act of 2015, juvenile means a child below the age of 18 years. Now, this statement is correct because under Section 2 Clause 35, juvenile means a child below the age of 18 years. The question asks for the correct statements. Here, statement 2 is the correct statement. So, the final correct answer to this question is option B, 2 only. Now, this next question is based on Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairy and Fisheries. The first statement states, it comes under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare. Now, when we see animal husbandry, dairy and all, we think it is a part of agriculture but it is not. This department comes under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairy. So, this statement is wrong. Now, the second statement states, the department is responsible for matters relating to dairy development and also the National Dairy Development Board. Now, this statement is correct. The Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairy are responsible for matters related to livestock production, preservation, protection and improvement of livestock and it is also responsible for the National Dairy Development Board. Now, also know that the programs and activities of the National Dairy Development Board aim to strengthen farmer cooperatives and it supports national policies that are favourable to the growth of cooperatives of farmers. So, this statement is correct. The question asks for the correct statement. Here, statement 2 is the correct statement. So, the final answer to this question is option B, 2 only. Now, if you look at the next question, it is based on mangroves. The first statement states, mangrove forests are commonly found in hilly region. Now, mangroves can be trees, shrubs and ferns that occupy the boundary between the land and the sea. So, that means, they are not in the hilly regions. So, this statement is wrong. Now, the second statement states that mangrove forests are not found in the state of Kerala due to the presence of western guards. Now, after seeing the first statement, you will think that western guards is a hilly region. So, there will not be any mangrove forest. But Kerala is not full of western guards. One part of Kerala has western guards. So, this means other parts can have mangrove forests. So, this statement is also wrong. The question asks for the correct statements. Since none of these statements are correct, the correct answer and the final answer to this question is neither 1 nor 2. Now, this next question is based on elephant population estimation of 2017. The first statement states, the state of Karnataka has recorded the largest population of elephants in India. Now, this statement is correct. Karnataka has the largest population of elephants in India. This is followed by the states of Assam, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. And also remember that the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands has certain elephant population as well. So, this statement is correct. If you look at the next statement, it states the population of elephants is estimated using direct count only. Two methods are used for this estimation. One is direct count and another is indirect count. And this indirect count method is based on dunk spottings. If you see as per this 2017 report, indirect count method has been exclusively done in the states of Tripura and Nagaland and also in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. So, this means statement 2 is incorrect because it states it is estimated using direct count only. Here, the only word should not be included. The question asks for the correct statements since statement 1 is the correct answer. So, final answer to this question is option A1 only. In this question, two statements have been given. We have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states, currency management is one of the important functions of RBA. We know that this is correct. The important functions of RBA include formulation and implementation of monetary policy. And this has to be done with the objective of maintaining price stability and ensuring adequate flow of credit to productive sectors of the economy. And we also know that RBA is also called as issuer of currency. And the management of currency is one of the core central banking functions of RBA. And it derives this function from section 22 of RBA Act of 1934. The next statement states, E-Kuber is the core banking solution of State Bank of India. Now, this statement is wrong because E-Kuber is not the core banking solution for SBI. But it is the core banking solution platform of RBI. This platform is a centralized system established by RBI which allows its customers to conduct their businesses irrespective of the branches or regional offices of RBI. So, here statement one is the only correct statement. So, the correct final answer to this question is option A, one only. Now, this next question is based on Mahatma Gandhi new series of banknotes. First statement states, banknotes under the Mahatma Gandhi new series were launched in 2015. Now, this statement is incorrect because the new series were launched after the demonetization. And demonetization was implemented in the year 2016 and not in 2015. Therefore, the Mahatma Gandhi new series of currency notes were launched in 2016 only. So, the first statement is incorrect. The second statement states, Chandrayaan 1 of India is one of the motives used in currency notes. Now, to answer this question, you should definitely know whether Chandrayaan 1 is there or not. It is not used as a motive in the currency notes. So, this statement is wrong. Currency notes reflect the Indian pride by portraying the cultural heritage and scientific achievements of India. So, based on this, the 500 rupee note has the motif of red foot. And the rupee 20 note has the motif of Ellora caves. And rupees 2000 note series highlights the Mongolian satellite. But so far, Chandrayaan 1 has not been highlighted in any of the new note. Therefore, the second statement is wrong. Here, both the statements are incorrect and the question asks for the correct statements. So, the final correct answer to this question is neither one nor two. This question is about provisioning coverage ratio. Four statements have been given and we have to choose the correct statement. PCR is the rate of provisioning to the gross non-performing assets. And a PCR indicates the amount of funds that a bank has to cover these NPS, which are the loan losses. So, the correct answer to this question is option C, which states ratio of provisioning to gross non-performing assets and indicates the extent of funds a bank has kept aside to cover loan losses. The PCR is a kind of buffer against the losses caused by NPS. But if you look at the option A, it talks about cash, gold reserves, the government approved securities. These are called as liquid assets. The Reserve Bank of India has mandated every bank to have a specified liquid reserve called the statutory liquidity ratio. So, option A deals with statutory liquidity ratio. It is therefore, the ratio of liquid assets to the net demand and time liability. Also know that the statutory liquidity ratio or SLR today is 18.75 percentage. These liquid assets are maintained and are kept by the banks. Then if you look at the option B, it deals with cash reserve ratio. This means as of today, the banks have to keep 4% of the total deposits of customers as cash reserves with the central bank that is RBI. Unlike SLR, these reserves are kept with RBI. SLR and CRR are required to prevent a bank in acting detrimental to the interests of the depositors. This is to ensure proper management of a banking company and also to secure monetary stability in the country. So, that is why the correct answer to this question is option C. In this question, two statements have been given and we have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights is a constitutional body. Now, this statement is wrong because the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights that is the NCPCR is a statutory body because it was established by the Commission for the Protection of Child Rights Act of 2005. So, we know that it is not established based on the provisions in constitution. So, it is not a constitutional body. This statement is wrong. If you see the next statement, it states, the Commission can inquire into the violation of child rights by Suomoto. One of the functions of NCPCR is to inquire into the complaints about the violation of child rights, non-implementation of laws, policies for the protection of child rights. It can inquire on its own without anyone making any formal complaint or a reporting of violations to the Commission. Now, this inquiry is called as Suomoto, which is inquiring on its own. So, this statement is correct. Here statement 2 is the correct statement. So, the final answer to this question is option B2 only. Now, this next question states, in each of the following states, the share of MAICA with respect to the country's total MAICA resources is maximum. Four states have been given, Andhra Pradesh, Udisha, Bihar, Jharkhand. Bihar and Jharkhand together account for 3 percent of MAICA resources found in the country. Andhra Pradesh accounts for 41 percentage of MAICA resource found in the country, which is the maximum. So, the correct answer to this question is option A, Andhra Pradesh. Also know that the second state which has most MAICA resources is Rajasthan, which is followed by Udisha. This question is based on special data dissemination standard. The question asks that this data standard initiative is established by which of the following organizations. Four organizations have been given, the special data dissemination standard or SDDS initiative is established by International Monetary Fund or IMF. Some important data standard initiatives taken by IMF to bring data transparency in member countries. And in the year 1996, it introduced special data dissemination standard. So, the correct answer to this question is option B, International Monetary Fund. This question is with respect to blue whales. Three statements have been given and we have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states they are found in Indian Ocean only. The blue whale is a cosmopolitan species, which means it is found all over the world. These blue whales are found in all oceans except in some regional seas, such as the Mediterranean Sea, Okostuk Sea and Bering Sea. So, this means this statement is wrong. Now, as the first statement is wrong, you can eliminate option A and option B. Now, the second statement states it is listed as critically endangered by the IUCN red list. Now, as of now, it is listed as endangered in the IUCN red list of threatened species. This is because of the effective implementation of conservation measures which are helping in the slow recovery of the blue whale population. So, this statement is also wrong, which means statement 3 is the correct statement and option C is the correct answer to this question. Now, also know that it is protected under Schedule 1 of Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. This next question is based on advisory board for banking frauds. Two statements have been given and we have to choose the correct statement. First statement states it was constituted by Central Vigilance Commission in consultation with the RBI. Yes, this statement is correct. It was constituted by Central Vigilance Commission. It was formed after reconstituting and renaming the advisory board on bank commercial and financial frauds and it was formed after the consultation with the RBI. So, this statement is correct. The second statement states its objective is to examine large bank frauds of over rupees 50 crore and recommend action. Now, this statement is also correct because this board was formed based on the framework that was issued by the central government, which stated that all accounts exceeding rupees 50 crore if classified as non-performing assets can be examined by banks from the angle of possible fraud. For this purpose only, this board was constituted. So, this statement is also correct. Here both these statements are correct. So, the final correct answer to this question is option C both 1 and 2. This next question is based on Central Vigilance Commission and we have to choose the correct statement. The first statement states it was constituted based on the recommendations of the Ghatgil Commission. Now, this statement is wrong because Madhav Ghatgil was the chairman of Western Guards Ecology Export Panel, which was also called as Ghatgil Commission. So, this means Ghatgil Commission was based on Western Guards Ecology Export Panel. It was an environment related panel, but we know that Central Vigilance Commission is set up for addressing the corrupt practices within the government. So, that means Central Vigilance Commission has to be based on a committee which was on the prevention of corruption and this committee on prevention of corruption is called as Sant Anam Committee, not Ghatgil Commission. So, this statement is wrong. Now, the second statement states it is an autonomous statutory body. In this statement, two things have been given. First, we have to know whether it is an autonomous body and second, whether it is a statutory body. Yes, it is an autonomous body because CVC was conceived to be the apex vigilance institution which is free of control from any executive authority for monitoring all vigilance activity under the central government. Now, second, whether it is a statutory body? Yes, it is a statutory body. It was given statutory status based upon the promulgation of an ordinance by the president. This ordinance made the Central Vigilance Commission a multi-member commission in the year 1998. Then in 2003, the Central Vigilance Bill was passed by both the houses of the parliament and the president gave assent in September 2003. So, based on this, the Central Vigilance Commission Act of 2003 came into effect. Now, under this Act, the Central Vigilance Commission continues to be a statutory body. So, this statement is correct. The third statement states it comes under Ministry of Home Affairs. It does not come under any ministry. So, this statement is wrong. The question asks for the correct statement. Here, statement two is the only correct statement. So, the final correct answer to this question option B2 only. Now, in this question, three statements have been given and we have to choose the correct statements. The first statement states India shares boundary with Afghanistan. This statement is correct because according to the official records of the Ministry of Home Affairs, India shares around 106 kilometers of land border with Afghanistan. Then if you look at the second statement, it states India shares its longest international boundary with Bangladesh. Now, this statement is also correct. This is because India shares the longest length in terms of land boundary with Bangladesh which is around some 4,096.7 kilometers. Then the second longest international boundary which India shares is with China. Then comes Pakistan, but also know that the shortest international boundary is shared with Afghanistan which we saw it is around 106 kilometers only. So, this statement is also correct. Now, if you look at the third statement, it states India shares its international land boundary with seven countries. Now, this is a fact. It is true. So, what are the seven countries? We just now discussed about four countries. One is Bangladesh, then is China, then Pakistan, then Afghanistan. Then apart from this, we know that India shares borders with Nepal, then Myanmar, then Bhutan. So, there are seven countries. So, this statement is also correct. Now, along with this also know that India has around 15,106.7 kilometer of land border and India has a coastline of 7,516.6 kilometer. Here all the three statements are correct. Correct answer to this question is option D, 1, 2 and 3. This question is based on rotavirus disease. Three statements have been given and we have to choose the incorrect statement. Now, if you see the first statement, it states it is a zoonotic disease caused by the cattle. Now, this statement is wrong because rotavirus is not caused by animals, it is transmitted through the fecal oral transmission. It means that the germs that can cause illness are found in these stool or feces of an infected person and they are spread to another person. So, this statement is wrong. Now, the second statement states it is the most common organism that causes severe diarrhea and death among the children under the age of 5. Now, this statement is correct. Now, the third statement states rotavirus vaccine is a part of universal immunization program. Yes, it is a part of universal immunization program and this program comes under the ministry of health and family welfare and under this program the vaccines are given free of cost. Under this program, three doses of the vaccine are given to the children who are at the age of 6 weeks, 10 weeks and 14 weeks. So, this statement is also correct. The question asks for the incorrect statement. Here statement 1 is the incorrect statement. So, the correct answer to this question is option A 1 only. Now, this next question is based on article 371f. The first statement states this article contains special provisions with respect to the state of Sikkim only. Now, this statement is correct. Article 371f was inserted into the constitution as per the 36th constitutional amendment act of 1975 and this article contains special provisions with respect to only the state of Sikkim. So, this statement is correct. Now, the second statement states according to this article the legislative assembly of the state of Sikkim shall consist of not less than 30 members. Now, this statement is also correct because as per the clause A of article 371f the legislative assembly of the state of Sikkim shall consist of not less than 30 members. So, this statement is correct and the statement 1 is also correct. So, the correct answer to this question is option C both 1 and 2. Now, this next question is based on common service centers. These statements have been given. We have to choose the correct statement. Now, in this the first statement is correct. Common service centers promotes rural entrepreneurship and they also improve rural livelihood. So, this statement is correct. Now, if you look at the second statement it states it is under ministry of rural development. Now, after seeing the first statement you will think this program comes under ministry of rural development. But it is wrong. This program comes under the ministry of electronics and information technology because CSC offers e-governance services such as bill payments, filling up of forms and submission of forms etc. That is why it comes under ministry of electronics and information technology. So, this statement is wrong. Now, if you look at the third statement it states CSC e-governance is a special purpose vehicle registered under the Companies Act of 1956. Now, this statement is also correct. So, the question asks for the correct statements. Here statement 1 and 3 are correct. The final correct answer to this question is option B, 1 and 3 only. Or you can approach this question in a different method also. Now, after seeing that statement 2 is wrong, if you see the options given below, option A, C and D all the three have statement 2 as options. So, you can simply eliminate all these three and you can arrive at the final answer of option B, 1 and 3 only. In this next question, we have to choose the incorrect statement from the four given statements. Now, the first statement states faster transmission of repo rate cuts by the banks will benefit the borrowers and like that four statements have been given. Whenever repo rates are cut, the borrowers will be benefited. Since the interest rates will be low and the borrowers will be able to borrow more money from the bank and whenever there is an improper transmission of rates that is when the banks are not passing on the rate cut benefits to the borrowers, it will affect the borrowers and at the same time it will benefit the depositors because the rates will be considerably high and so the returns will be high for the depositors. So, based on this you can say that statement A, B and C are conceptually correct. Now, whenever there is a repo rate cut, it generally affects the depositors only because the interest rates will be low and so the returns from the money deposited by the depositors will also reduce. So, it affects them and it will not benefit them and with this if there is a faster transmission of rate cut then the depositors will be affected immediately and they will not be benefited. So, the correct answer to this question is option D because it states that faster transmission of repo rate cut by the banks will benefit the depositors but conceptually it will not benefit them, it will affect them. Now, this question is based on match the following format. One side geographical indication has been given and the other side states have been given. The first geographical indication given here is Bangalore-Rashgulla. Now, after looking at this you may get confused between the option 1 and option 3 because these two states are known for Rashgulla but remember that the GI tag of Bangalore-Rashgulla was given to the state of West Bengal. So, obviously A should match with 3. So, we can directly eliminate options A and option B. Now, if you see option C and D you can say that Patachitra is from the state of Odisha. So, that is correct. Now, we have to say whether Basmati rice is from Assam or from Himachal Pradesh or we can say either Muga silk is from the state of Assam or from Himachal Pradesh. Now, normally the geographical indication of a good is given for a particular state for one state or two states but in the case of Basmati, if you see more than two states have been given the GI tag like the state of Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Delhi, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir. So, this means Basmati has got the GI tag from Himachal Pradesh also. So, the correct answer here is B for 4. If you see A for 3 should be there, B for 4 should be there and C for 1 should be there which is there in the option C. So, this is the correct answer to this question. Now, this next question is based on All India Tiger Estimation. Three statements have been given, we have to choose the correct statement. Now, first statement states, it is a national assessment that is conducted by the National Tiger Conservation Authority in collaboration with the state forest departments and conservation NGOs coordinated by the Wildlife Institute of India. Now, this statement is correct. Now, if you look at the next statement, it states the assessment will be conducted once in four years. The assessment is called as a quadrennial assessment which means it is conducted once in four years because here quad means four. So, this statement is also correct. Now, if you look at the third statement, it states there was a continuous increase in the number of tigers in every successive cycle of assessment. Now, this statement is also correct because there was a continuous increase in the tiger population with every cycle of assessment. Like in the year 2006, it was 1411 and in the year 2010, it was 1706 and in the year 2014, it was 2226 and then finally in the year 2018 assessment, it was 2967. So, this means there is a continuous increase. So, this statement is also correct. As the three statements given here are correct, the final answer to this question is option D12 and 3. Now, this question is also based on tiger only. The question states the Royal Bengal Tiger is found throughout India except. So, we have to eliminate the option where Royal Bengal Tiger is found because the question says except. So, the correct answer is the place where Royal Bengal Tiger is not found. Now, here the correct answer is actually northwestern India. In the northwestern part of India, Royal Bengal Tiger is not found. Now, we should know that there are eight races of tiger species, which is called as Pantera Tigers and the Indian race is called as the Royal Bengal Tiger. The government sources mentioned that this tiger is found throughout India except the northwestern region of India. Now, this next question is based on national commission for minorities. Here two statements have been given. We have to choose the correct statement. First statement states it is a statutory body constituted under the National Commission for Minorities Act of 1992. Now, we know that this is a correct statement. We call a commission as a statutory body when it is constituted under a statute or a law and we call a body as a constitutional body when it is constituted or when it is mentioned in the constitution. So, as the National Commission for Minorities is constituted based on National Commission for Minorities Act of 1992, it is a statutory body. So, this statement is correct. If you look at the next statement, the commission can suggest appropriate measures in respect of any minority to be undertaken by the central government or the state governments. Now, this is the main function of the National Commission for Minorities. So, this statement is also correct. So, the correct and final answer to this question is option C both 1 and 2. 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