 Welcome to the Hindu News Analysis by Shankar Ayesakarmi. The news articles along with the page numbers are displayed here for your reference. The PDF link of the handwritten notes and the timestamping of the news articles is given in the description box as well as in the comment section. Now let us start our today's news analysis. This discussion is based on the open editorial. The editorial justifies the actions of the then congress party which agreed for partition. The most important thing that we remember about our independence is the partition. There is always a question around it that why was partition accepted by the congress. So the author of this editorial tries to provide reasons for why congress agreed to partition. The syllabus that can be linked to this discussion is given here for your reference. Now we will discuss the editorial based on the author views. That is if the congress leadership especially Jawahala Nehru and Sardar Vallabhai Patel if they had not accepted for the division of the country then it could have led to the dismemberment or further division of India. The reason for this is the alternative that was provided to the idea of partition. Here the alternative was the cabinet mission plan of 1946. The congress demand at that time was that the British quit India which was made clear by the quit India movement that started in 1942. So the British agreed to a open dialogue with Indian parties regarding a possible transfer of power. The negotiations began in 1945 and in this the British agreed to create an entirely Indian central executive council except for the voicera and the commander in chief of the armed forces. This was a preliminary step towards full independence. But the discussions about the transfer of power broke down due to Muhammad Ali Jinnah's continuous demand. Here the demand was that the Muslim League had an absolute right to choose all the Muslim members of the executive council and there should be a kind of communal vote in the executive council. So in March 1946 the British cabinet sent a three-member mission to Delhi to examine the League's demand and to suggest a suitable political framework for a free India. That is the cabinet mission went to negotiate for the setting up of a national government and to sit into motion that is a missionary for the transfer of powers. And this cabinet mission consists of three members which includes Pethik Lawrence who was the secretary of the state and then Stafford Cribs and A.V. Alexander. The recommendation of this mission is known as the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 and the mission to the entire country for three months and they recommended a loose three-tier confederation and India was to remain united under this plan. The congress demand was transfer of power to one centre along with minorities. Here the demand being worked out in a framework which could give autonomy to the Muslim provinces and also self-determination on cessation from the Indian Union. But the British bid was for a united India and also an India that is friendly with Britain and also an active partner in the Commonwealth defence. This was clearly reflected in the British policy of 1946 which had a preference for a united India. See the cabinet mission was convinced that Pakistan was not viable and that the minority's autonomy must somehow be safeguarded within the framework of united India itself. That is why it conceived as three sections. See under this plan India was to have a weak central government that will be controlling only foreign affairs, defence and communications with the existing provincial assemblies. These provincial assemblies were grouped into three sections while electing the Constituent Assembly. The section A was for the Hindu majority provinces that comprises of Madras, Bombay, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, then central provinces and Orissa. Then section B and section C were for the Muslim majority provinces. See section B was for Muslim majority provinces of northwest that consisted of Punjab, then northwest frontier province and Sindh province. Then section C was for the Muslim majority provinces of northeast that consisted of Bengal and Assam. See the sections or groups of provinces would comprise various regional units and they would have the power to set up intermediate level executives and legislatures of their own. So as per this plan after the first general elections a province could come out of the group. Then after 10 years a province can call for reconsideration of the group constitution or union constitution. In this Congress wanted that a province need not wait till the first elections to leave a group rather it should have the option not to join the group in the first place. Here the Congress had this plan because it had Congress ruled provinces of Assam and northwest frontier province which were in section C and section B respectively. So Congress wanted these provinces under their control. Then the Muslim League wanted the provinces to have the right to question the union constitution now itself and need not wait for 10 years. So we can say that there was an obviously visible problem in the mission plan as it was ambivalent or confused on whether grouping was compulsory or optional. So it declared that grouping was optional but sections were compulsory. Then another problem was the Congress and League interpreted the mission plan in their own way. And both saw the plan as a confirmation of their stand. So they supported the Cabinet Mission Plan. Initially the Congress maintained that the mission's plan was against Pakistan as the League's demand for veto was gone and that this plan envisaged only one constraint assembly. So based on this Congress supported the Cabinet Mission Plan. Whereas the Muslim League initially interpreted the plan as a stepping stone towards the ultimate formation of Pakistan. As the League inferred this from the Cabinet Mission Plan's provision that says that any province by majority vote of its legislative assembly could call for a reconsideration of the terms of the constitution after an initial period of 10 years and at 10 years intervals thereafter. So as per the Muslim League the plan did not rule out the dissolution of the union if the provinces made such a demand. So initially all the major parties accepted this plan but the agreement was short lived because it was based on mutually opposed interpretations of the plan. See the League wanted the grouping to be compulsory along with sections B and C developing into strong entities with the right to secede from the union in the future. Whereas the Congress wanted that the provinces be given right to join a group. The Congress was not satisfied with the mission's clarification that grouping would be compulsory at first but provinces would have right to opt out after constitution had been finalized and the new elections will be held in accordance with the new constitution. So ultimately neither the League nor the Congress agreed to the Cabinet Mission's proposal. This was a most crucial juncture because after this partition became more or less inevitable and most of the Congress leaders agreed to it though it was tragic but it was unavoidable. But you should note that Mahatma Gandhi, Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan of Northwest Frontier Province, continued to firmly oppose the idea of partition. So from the discussion we can say that the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 envisaged a loose federal structure with a weak center. Even the author of this editorial calls this plan as a crypto-Pakistan place as the plan had secretly envisaged separate Pakistan. It is because this plan grouped provinces on the basis of religious majorities and it left the issue of the princely state's future as a matter of discussion between the princes and the weak center that was envisioned by the plan. So according to the author, historical evidence demonstrates that if the Congress party would not have accepted the partition plan then India today would have been a weak state and it divided polity that was barely able to keep itself together and it would have been constantly fluctuating on the brink of collapse. So the author concludes that the Congress did a favor to the country by accepting its division in order to save the country from dismemberment or further collapse. With this we have come to the end of analysis of this editorial. The display practice question will be discussed at the end of the session. Now let us proceed to the next news article analysis. This news article is with reference to some notices that are sent to about 127 residents in the state of Telangana. These notices were reportedly sent by the Unique Identification Authority of India which is a statutory authority under the ADAR Act of 2016. See in this analysis we will understand what has actually happened and what may happen in the future. The syllabus relevant for the analysis of this news article is highlighted here for your reference. See the news article states that Unique Identification Authority of India has sent notices to 127 individuals in the state of Telangana. The news article states that UIDAI has asked the individuals to prove their Indian citizenship. So based on this information in many social media there is a lot of outcry that how can UIDAI ask an individual to prove their citizenship. Some social and printing media are stating that the notice of UIDAI bears a striking similarity with the proposed NRC exercise or the NRC update exercise that took place in the state of Assam. But the UIDAI has clarified about this entire issue through a press release dated 18th February 2020. See the press release is titled as AUDAR is not a citizenship document. In this press release the entire issue has been clarified by the UIDAI and it is also important for us to focus on this issue and it is also equally important for us to understand the various pros and cons of AUDAR Act for our prelims exam and also for your main examination. You should know that Unique Identification Authority of India is responsible for AUDAR enrollment and authentication. It is also responsible for developing policy, procedure and system for issuing AUDAR numbers to individuals. It has to perform authentication of personal identity of AUDAR holders under the pros and cons of AUDAR Act. It is also responsible for the security of identity information and also security of authentication records of individuals. These are the main responsibility of UIDAI under the AUDAR Act of 2016. Now let us know that who are eligible for the enrollment of AUDAR. See the section 3 of AUDAR Act states that every resident shall be entitled to obtain an AUDAR number. They can obtain the AUDAR number by submitting demographic and biometric information by undergoing the process of enrollment. So what is the definition of resident? If you see section 2 of AUDAR Act, it states that resident means an individual who has resided in India for a period of 182 days or more. In the 12 months, immediately preceding the date of application for enrollment. He resident also includes an individual who have resided in India in periods. And if this periods amount in total to 182 days or more, in 12 months, immediately preceding the date of application for enrollment, then this person is also a resident. So these residents are eligible for getting the AUDAR number. But in September 2018, Supreme Court declared that AUDAR number and AUDAR card should not be given to illegal immigrants. So as a result of this Supreme Court verdict, illegal migrants became ineligible for AUDAR number. So this means that the UIDAI has to verify whether it has given AUDAR to any illegal migrant or not. The verdict also means UIDAI can cancel the AUDAR number if such members were already given by UIDAI to illegal immigrants. So what happened recently? Under the present organizational structure, the regional head office of UIDAI for Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Vorissa, Chetishgad and Annamanikobar is in Hyderabad. The state police of Telangana have found in their preliminary inquiry that around 127 persons were found to be illegal immigrants and as a result, they will not be qualified to obtain an AUDAR number. But these 127 persons have obtained AUDAR number already. So police has sent reports to the regional UIDAI office in Hyderabad stating that the 127 people have obtained AUDAR on false pretenses. So in furtherance of this report from the state police, the regional office has issued notices to these 127 individuals. These notices have asked the individuals to appear in person on 20th February, that is on today, and to substantiate their claims for getting an AUDAR number. So what will happen if they appear in person? Once they appear in person, the replies will be received and the claims will be examined. And if it is found and proved that any of them has obtained AUDAR by submitting false documents or through false pretenses, then their AUDAR is liable to be cancelled or suspended. Cancellation or suspension will depend on the severity of the transgression. So in simple language, if UIDAI confirms that they are illegal migrants, then their AUDAR numbers will be cancelled. The UIDAI has stated that this process is a routine quality improvement process that it takes up regularly. Here we have to know about section 34 of AUDAR Act of 2016. It states that whoever providing any false demographic information or false biometric information, they shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or with a fine which may extend to 10,000 rupees or with both. These notices have actually asked the 127 individuals to appear before the deputy director of UIDAI for a personal hearing on 28th February 2020. Meanwhile, the state police of Telangana have informed UIDAI that it may take them some more time to collect their original documents that they had already submitted for obtaining other numbers. So UIDAI has postponed the personal hearing dates of these 127 individuals to May 2020. Now if you look at the news article, it states that the action by UIDAI resembles the NRC exercise. This is because NRC exercise also seeks to identify and remove the names of illegal immigrants. However, UIDAI has also replied to the reports that it has asked to prove the citizenship. It has said that the notices have nothing to do with citizenship and it has also clarified that the cancellation of other numbers is in no way related to the nationality of any resident. See the section 9 of other act states that the other number by itself shall not confer any right of citizenship or domicile for an other number holder and it is also in itself not a proof of citizenship or domicile in respect of an other number holder. However, we also know that an illegal migrant is not eligible to obtain other number. So these are some of the information with respect to analysis of this news article. In this analysis we saw about the eligibility for receiving the other number. We also saw the recent incident of notices being sent by UIDAI to 127 individuals in the state of Telangana. With this we have come to the end of analysis of this news article. The display practice question will be discussed at the end of the session. Now let us proceed to the next news article analysis. This news article is with reference to the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation Bill of 2020. This is one of the three recently proposed bills for the welfare of women in our country. The proposed bills are Medical Termination of Pregnancy Amendment Bill of 2020. And the Surrogacy Regulation Bill of 2020. And the recent one is the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation Bill of 2020. The syllabus relevant for the analysis of this news article is highlighted here for your reference. See we have discussed the legal pros and cons of the proposed legislation on surrogacy on 26th July 2019. That day we have discussed that a law on ART is a precondition to the regulation of surrogacy in India. And then regarding Medical Termination of Pregnancy Amendment Bill of 2020. We have discussed in our 30th January 2020 video. So with reference to surrogacy and medical termination. So we request the viewers to watch the analysis of these two videos. Today we will be discussing some important or silent features of the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation Bill of 2020. You should know that recently the cabinet has approved the Assisted Reproductive Technology Bill for the introduction in Parliament. Right now the approved bill is not available for the public and most probably will be receiving the copy of the proposed bill once the bill is stable in the Parliament. Today we will be limiting our discussion mainly based on the press release of the government and also based on the news article. Know that at present in our country there is no standardization of protocols despite huge ART activities in the country. Also lack of regulation at present leads to lot of challenges and exploitation. And there is a need for children born through Assisted Reproductive Technology to be provided all rights that are available for biological children. Therefore the proposed bill will regulate the Assisted Reproductive Technology Services in the country. Then the oocyte donors need to be supported by an insurance cover and there should be a code of conduct to be observed by persons working at ART clinics. And then we have to set the minimum standards of physical infrastructure then laboratory and diagnostic equipment including expert manpower to be employed by such ART clinics and banks. See there are also a variety of ART services which have to be regulated and this bill approved by the cabinet is a one stop solution for all these challenges that we have mentioned. You should know that this is not the first time that a bill to regulate ART services has been proposed in our country. See the bill is said to be proposed first time in the year 2008. Since then we are trying to have a legislation to address the concerns involved in ART services. So most probably this recent bill which has been approved by the cabinet is expected to become a legislation. See the bill aims to set up a set of statutory authorities. One of the authorities is a national board and this board will lay down code of conduct to be observed by persons working at ART clinics. See the code of conduct will be a set of rules for ethical practices to be adhered in ART clinics and banks. As a result of this infertile couples who usually reach out to ART clinics will be more confident of the ethical practices in ARTs. See the national board will also set the minimum standards that are required for physical infrastructure then laboratory and diagnostic equipment and also for expert manpower to be employed by the ART clinics and banks. Here when we say banks it refers to semen banks and as per the bill that is proposed in 2008 a semen bank shall be deemed to include both sperm and oocytes. Know that these are also called as ART banks. Then the next statutory authority are the state boards. The state boards have the responsibility to follow the policies and plans laid by the national board. The bill also provides for the creation of national registry and registration authority. This authority will maintain a central database for the purposes of ART services and regulation and this authority will also assist the national board in its functioning. As of now you should know that in India we have national registry of ART clinics and banks. This registry comes under the Indian Council of Medical Research and at present this registry has just enrolled some ART clinics and this enrollment is based on the minimum infrastructure facilities and then trained manpower and processes being undertaken at the ART clinics. See the registry under ICMR has categorically stated that the enrollment number is not the certificate of quality in regard to services provided by the enrolled ART clinic. The information provided by the enrolled ART clinics has not yet been verified by the experts committee of the ICMR. See the process of verification of their claims by the ICMR experts committee is in process currently. At present one can find about 517 ART clinics which are enrolled in this national registry under ICMR. So to understand the present situation better that is with respect to ART services we request you to go through this image which has information that is sourced from the Indian Council of Medical Research. Now if you look at the ART regulation bill of 2020 it also proposes for a stringent punishment for unlawful activities. These activities include practicing of sex selection then the activities involving sale of human embryos and then it also includes strict punishment for running agencies or organizations for such unlawful practices. In addition to these features the news article also mentions that there will be a confidentiality clause in the proposed bill. This clause will also ensure the confidentiality of intending couples who opt for ART services. This also implies that the clause will prohibit the ART clinics from leaking personal information of intending couples. Furthermore the clause also expected to prescribe punishment for the violation of confidentiality. So these are some of the important features of the Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation Bill of 2020 and we will be discussing the bill at length with exact provisions from the bill after the bill is tabled in the parliament. Now let us move on to the analysis of next news article. This news article is about the changes approved by the union cabinet for two important schemes and these schemes are Pradhanamantri Fasar Bhima Yojana and the restructured weather based crop incident schemes. In this contest we will be discussing in brief about these two schemes. Here you can see the syllabus relevant to the analysis of this news article for your reference. So first let us discuss in brief about the Pradhanamantri Fasar Bhima Yojana. Here Fasar means crops and Bhima means incidents. So it is a crop incident scheme and it was launched in 2016. The scheme is implemented under the overall guidance and control of the department of agriculture, cooperation and farmers welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers See the Yojana has four important objectives. The first and foremost objective is to provide incidents coverage and financial support to the farmers in the event of failure of any of the notified crops as a result of natural calamities, then pest attack and also in case of diseases. Then the next objective is to stabilize the income of farmers to ensure their continuation in farming activities. Then the other objective is to encourage farmers to adapt innovation and modern agricultural practices. Finally it also aims to ensure flow of credit into the agricultural sector. Now we will see the complete details of Fasar Bhima Yojana scheme. See all farmers growing notified crops in a notified area during the season we have insurable interest in the crop or eligible for coverage. But the scheme is compulsory for certain sections of farmers. These farmers are in the notified area who possesses a crop loan account or Kisan credit card account to whom credit limit is sanctioned or renewed for the notified crop during the crop season. It is also mandatory for such other farmers whom the government may decide to include from time to time. Now let us discuss the types of risk that are covered under the scheme. It covers yield losses due to non-preventable rigs such as enlightening, then storms, yield storms, cyclones, typhoons etc. It also covers yield loss due to flooding, landslides, droughts and also pest attack. Know that it also covers losses because of prevented sowing that is when majority of the insured farmers of a notified area having intent to sowing but they are prevented from sowing due to adverse weather conditions. So in this case they can claim up to a maximum of 25% of the amount insured. See the scheme also covers post-arvest losses. The coverage is extended to 14 days from harvesting the crops against the specific impact of cyclonic rains and also unseasonal rains. Note that localized risks such as loss due to hail storms, landslides and inundation affecting isolated farms are also insured. Know that there are some exclusions such as losses due to war, nuclear risk, riots, malicious damage, theft, then act of enmity, then destruction by domestic and wild animals are not covered under this scheme. Now let us discuss the premium rates of the scheme. There will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all curry crops and 1.5% for all ruby crops. And in case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%. See the premium rates to be paid by farmers are very low and the balance premium will be paid by the central and state governments on a sharing basis and this sharing ratio is 50 to 50. So it is a centrally sponsored scheme and you can look at this image for your better understanding. So in this table we have given the seasons and then crops covered and also the amount of premium that is to be paid as per the scheme. Now we will see some of the other highlights of the scheme. See the scheme mandates the use of mobile phones to get reliable good quality and timely yield data. So availability of yield data will help in speedy settlement of claims of farmers and the scheme also provides for geo fencing or geo mapping of the region using GPS system. Another insurance scheme that is mentioned in this news article is the restructured weather based crop incident scheme. See this scheme is also implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture and it aims to mitigate the problems of the insured farmers against the possibilities of financial losses on account of anticipated crop losses resulting from adverse weather conditions that are related to such as rainfall, temperature, wind and then humidity and so on. See the important crops that are covered are food crops which include cereals, millets and pulses and also oil seeds and it also covers commercial and also our tea culture crops. So you can notice that these crops mainly include rainfed crops which are prone to failure of monsoon. See the weather perils or challenges covered under the scheme or deficit or excess in rainfall and then temperature anomalies and also relative humidity changes and also wind speed and so on. With this let us discuss the news article that is as we have said before that the news article discusses some of the important changes made by the union cabinet in fossil beema yochina and also in weather based crop incident scheme. See the news article talks about decrease in share of central subsidy under these schemes. At present the central government and the state governments share the subsidy in the ratio of 50 is to 50. Now as per the cabinet decision the central government share is going to be reduced that is for unirrigated crops or areas the center subsidy will be about 30% and it will be 25% for irrigated areas or crops. See the districts having 50% or more irrigated area will be considered as irrigated area or district but know that the central subsidy has been increased to 90% for the north eastern states from the present level of 50%. Therefore as a whole the central government is trying to reduce its subsidy burden on crop incidents and this will put more burden on the states and insurance companies. So we can expect strong criticism from state leaders in the coming days. Then another important change is that the two schemes have been made voluntary for the farmers. As we have discussed that fossil beema yochina was mandatory for low-knee farmers or credit taken farmers. So to conclude this news article we have discussed about fossil beema yochina and also restructured weather based crop incident scheme and the recent changes proposed by the union cabinet. With this we have come to the end of analysis of this news article. The display practice question will be discussed at the end of the session. Now let us proceed to the next news article analysis. This news article mentions that the union cabinet has approved to set up the 22nd law commission. So in this discussion we will see a brief background about the law commissions of India and their functions and also about the recent 22nd law commission of India. The syllabus relevant for the analysis of this news article is highlighted here for your reference. The law commissions were constituted by the government from time to time and they were empowered to recommend legislative reforms. These legislative reforms were recommended with a view to clarify and then consolidate and codify particular branches of law where the government felt the necessity for it. The first such law commission was established in 1834 under the charter act of 1833. It was constituted under the chairmanship of Lord Mekhale. It recommended the codification of the penal code, then the criminal procedure code and also few other matters. Thereafter the second, the third and the fourth law commissions were constituted in 1853 then in 1861 and in 1879 respectively. These law commissions during a span of 50 years contributed a great deal to enrich the Indian statute book with a large variety of legislations. See the Indian code of civil procedure then the Indian contract act and the Indian evidence act and the transfer of property act are the products of the first four law commissions. So we can say that law commissions existed even before independence but after independence there were demands in parliament and also outside the parliament for establishing a central law commission. This central law commission was demanded to recommend the revision and updating of the inherited laws to serve the changing needs of the country. So the government of India reacted for the demand and established the first law commission of independent India in 1955. Its chairman was the then attorney general of India Mr. M. C. Sethalwar. Now if you look at the news article it mentions that the cabinet has approved the constitution of 20 second law commission of India. See these law commissions had a three-year term and they had different terms of references. You should also remember that the law commission of India is a non-statutory body as it is not constituted based on any statute or law. Know that the last law commission of India that is the 21st law commission of India was constituted in 2015. Its chairman was Justice Balbir Singh Sawan. According to the news article this 21st commission had submitted reports and also working papers on key issues such as simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha and the assemblies and also on uniform civil code. Its tenure ended on 31st August 2018 itself but in the newspaper it is wrongly mentioned as a last year. Therefore the 22nd law commission will be constituted for a period of three years from the date of publication of its order in the official gazette. It will consist of a full-time chairperson then four full-time members including the member secretary. Then as ex official member it will include the secretary of department of legal affairs and the secretary of legislative department. In addition to this it will also have part-time members but not more than five. According to the news article a retired supreme court judge or chief justice of a high court will head the law commission. Now let us see the benefits of a law commission. These benefits will include that is the government will have the benefit of recommendations from a specialized body on different aspects of law which are entrusted to the commission for its study and their recommendations. See the law commission shall undertake research in law and also undertake review of the existing laws for making reforms and also for enacting new legislations. This research can be undertaken based on a reference made to it by the central government or it can undertake the research on its own. Then the commission shall also undertake studies and research for bringing reforms in the justice delivery systems for elimination of delay in procedures and also for the speedy disposal of cases and also for reduction in cost of litigation. So the law commission of India shall identify the laws which are no longer needed or no longer relevant and which can be immediately repealed. It shall also examine the existing laws in the light of direct to principles of state policy and it can suggest ways of improvement and also for effective reforms. It can also suggest such legislations which may be necessary for implementing the direct to principles and also those which are necessary to attain the objectives set out in the preamble of the constitution. Then the commission can also consider and convey to the government its views on any subject relating to law and judicial administration that may be specifically referred to it by the government through the Ministry of Law and Justice. Then the commission can consider the request for providing research to any foreign countries as may be referred to it through the Department of Legal Affairs of Ministry of Law and Justice. Then it can take all the measures that may be necessary to harness law and the legal process in the service of the poor. Then it can also revise the central acts of general importance so as to simplify them and also to remove anomalies or ambiguities or inequities present in those acts. Also know that before finalizing its recommendations the commission will consult the nodal ministry or the department and also other stakeholders as the commission may deem necessary for the purpose. To conclude this news article we have seen in brief about the law commissions of India and their functions and also the recent decision of union cabinet to constitute 20 second law commission of India. With this we have come to the end of analysis of this news article. The displayed practice question will be discussed at the end of the session. Let us start our practice question session. This question was asked in 2016 UPSC prelims examination and this is based on Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bhima Yojana. They have given two statements and you have to choose correct options. First statement says under this scheme farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of 2% for any crop that they cultivate in any season of the year. Then the second statement says this scheme covers post-arvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains. See the first statement is incorrect statement because there is a differential rate of premium for cariff crops then for ruby crops and also for annual commercial and horticultural crops. See there is a uniform premium of 2% to be paid by farmers for all cariff crops and it is 1.5% for all ruby crops and in case of annual commercial and horticultural crops the premium to be paid by farmers will be 5%. Therefore the first statement is incorrect statement. Now if you look at the types of risk that are covered under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bhima Yojana it covers yield losses due to non-preventable risk such as natural fires and lightning, then as a result of hail storms, then cyclones and it also covers yield losses due to flooding, then landslides and also for pest attack. The scheme also covers losses because of prevented sowing which means that when majority of the insured farmers of a notified area having intent to sowing but they are prevented from sowing due to adverse weather conditions. The scheme also covers post-arvest losses. See the coverage is also extended to 14 days from harvesting the crops against the specific perils of cyclones and also for unseasonal rains. See the scheme also covers the localized risks such as losses due to hail storms or landslides including inundation affecting isolated farms are also covered. But you should know that there are some exclusions that is losses due to wars then such as nuclear risk then riots then malicious damage or theft or act of enmity or destruction by domestic and wild animals are not covered. Therefore the second statement says that the scheme covers post-arvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains is the correct statement. So for this question you have to choose correct statement. Therefore option B 2 only is the correct answer. This question is with reference to the national registry of ART clinics and banks in India. They have given two statements and you have to choose correct statement. First statement says it is a statutory body that enrolls assisted reproductive technology that is ART clinics. The second statement says so far it has not accredited any ART clinic or ART bank. If you look at the first statement it appears to be correct but it is an incorrect statement because the national registry of ART clinics and banks in India is not a statutory body but as per the proposed ART Regulation Bill of 2020 and if it becomes an act then as per this act a statutory authority will be created in the name of national registry and registration authority. See the second statement is a correct statement because at present this national registry of ART clinics and banks only enrolls the ART clinics or banks and so far it has not accredited any ART clinic or ART bank. So for this question you have to choose correct statement therefore option B 2 only is the correct answer for this question. So in the context of this question try to know the proposed bills for the welfare of women in our country and these bills includes medical termination of pregnancy amendment bill of 2020 and then surrogacy regulation bill of 2020 and also the assisted reproductive technology that is ART regulation bill of 2020. Now let's take up this question which is based on unique identification authority of India. They have given two statements and you have to choose correct statements. Statement one says it is a non-statutory body then the second statement says as per the pros and cons of other that is targeted delivery of financial and other subsidies benefits and services act of 2016 UIDAI has the authority to omit and deactivate any other number and information relating to the number. See the first statement is incorrect statement because unique identification authority of India has given statutory backup as per the section 11 of the AUDAR Act of 2016. As per the AUDAR Act of 2016 UIDAI is responsible for AUDAR enrollment and authentication and it is also responsible for developing policy then procedure and system for issuing other numbers to individuals. It has to perform authentication of personal identity of other card holders under the pros and cons of the AUDAR Act. It also responsible for the security of identity information and also security of authentication records of individuals. Then if you look at the second statement that is as per section 23 of AUDAR Act of 2016 UIDAI has the authority to omit and deactivate any other number. Therefore the given second statement is correct. So for this question you have to choose correct statement. So option B 2 only is the correct answer for this question. Now let's take up this question which was asked in 2013 UPSLIMS examination that is Tweet India Movement was launched in response to. They have given four options like Cabinet Mission Plan, Cripps Proposals, then Simon Commission Report, then Wevel Plan. So to answer this question you should know that Tweet India Movement was launched in 1942 after the failure of the Cripps Mission or Cripps Proposal then the Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third major movement against British rule. So for this question option B that is Cripps Proposals is the correct answer. Now let's take up this question which was asked in 2015 UPSLIMS examination that is with reference to Cabinet Mission. They have given three statements and you have to choose correct answer using the course given. Statement one says it recommended a federal government. Then second statement says it enlarged the powers of the Indian courts. Then the third statement says it provided for more Indians in the ICS. So to answer this question you should know about Cabinet Mission and as per this Cabinet Mission it recommended a federal government that will be controlling only foreign affairs, defence and communications with the existing provincial assemblies. These provincial assemblies were grouped into three sections which includes section A, B and C. See the section A was for the Hindu majority provinces that comprises of Madras province, Bombay, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Central provinces and Urisam. And then sections B and C were for the Muslim majority provinces and this section B was for the Muslim majority provinces that consisted of Punjab and then Northwest Frontier province and also Sindh province. Then the section C was also for the Muslim majority provinces of northeast that consisted of Bengal and Assam. As per the Cabinet Mission plan these sections are groups of provinces would comprise various regional units and they would have the power to set up intermediate level executives and legislators of their own. And also know that as per Cabinet Mission there is no mentioning of prozins that are related to enlarging the powers of the Indian courts and also for more representation in the Indian Civil Services examination. Therefore for this question option A one only is the correct answer. Now let's take up one more practice prelims question that is based on law commissions and finance commissions of India. Here they have given three statements and you have to choose correct answer using the quotes given. First statement says both are constitutional bodies. Then the second statement says both are non-permanent bodies. Then the third statement says both existed before the independence. To answer this question you should know about law commission of India and also finance commission of India. See finance commission is a constitutional body and it was constituted as per article 280. Whereas law commission is not a constitutional body and it is also non-statutory body because law commissions were established not based on any statute or any law. Therefore the first statement is incorrect statement. If you look at the second statement it is saying that both are non-permanent bodies. This statement is correct statement because usually law commissions were set up from time to time and they have given the tenure of mostly three years and also their terms of references changes from time to time and in case of finance commissions they will be constituted at the end of five years or before. So we can say that both the law commission and also finance commission are non-permanent bodies. Now if you look at the third statement it says that both existed before independence. This statement is also incorrect statement because though the law commissions were existed even before independence but the finance commissions were constituted after the independence. Therefore out of the given three statements only second statement that is option C to only is the correct answer for this question. Now let's take a practice mains question. This question was asked in 2019 UPSC mains examination in GS1 paper. The question says assess the role of British imperial power in complicating the process of transfer of power during the 1940s. This is a 15 marks question and you have to write in 250 words. So for this question you can post your written answers in the comment section and your posted answers will be evaluated and suitable feedback will be given within the reasonable time frame. With this we have come to the end of analysis of today's indian news analysis. 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