 Good evening aspirants. I welcome you all to another video of the series Shankar summary. But before getting into the discussion, I have two important announcements to make. One is that we are resuming the Hindu Daily News analysis from 15th of May 2023. We have been getting a lot of messages from you to resume the analysis again. We are really happy that many of you have been following the series continuously. So keep supporting us as always. And the second thing that I wanted to share is that the Free All India Mark Test of Shankar IA's Academy is starting soon. There are three tests and these three tests will be conducted on three days. That is 7th of May, 14th of May and 21st of May 2023. These tests are simulated based on UPSC standards. Also, answer keys and explanations will be given after each test. So gear up and get ready for your D-Day. So with this note, now we will take up the discussion. So these are some of the topics from October 2022 current affairs. Have a look at it. Now we will take up the first question for a discussion. See this question reads which of the following statements are the main features of central bank digital currency. Statement number one, it is a sovereign currency that central banks issue in accordance with their monetary policy. Statement number two, on the balance sheet of the central bank, it is listed as a liability. Statement number three, it is freely convertible into cash and money from commercial banks. Statement number four, holders of CBDC do not need to have a bank account because it is a fungible legal money. Statement number five, it is anticipated to reduce the price of issuing currency and the cost of transaction. Which of the statements given above is that are correct? First we will see some basics about CBDC then we will get back to the question. See CBDC that is central bank digital currency is a legal tender issued by RBI in a digital form. It is same as the fiat currency and is exchangeable one-on-one with fiat currency. Only its form is different. It is not a paper like physical currency. It is a fungible legal tender for which the holders need not have a bank account. CBDC will appear as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet. Now please don't confuse Erupee with Erupee. Both are different. Erupee is a person specific or purpose specific digital voucher. Whereas if you see Erupee it is a digital currency which the RBI is contemplating. Now coming back we will talk about its usage. See Erupee will be issued in the same denomination as the paper currency and it will be distributed through the intermediaries that is banks. Transactions will be through a digital wallet which is offered by the participating banks. The currencies can be stored on mobile phones and devices. Transactions can be both person to person, P to P and person to merchant that is P to M. For P to M transactions such as shopping there will be QR codes at the merchant location. A user will be able to withdraw digital tokens from banks in the same way she can currently withdraw physical cash. She will be able to keep her digital tokens in the wallet and spend them online or in person or transfer them via an app. While UPI based apps like Google Pay and Paytime have a daily and pet transaction spending limit the RBI has not fixed any limit on holding digital rupees in wallets. Digital rupee transactions above rupees 2 lakh are likely to be reported for tax matters. So this is the main advantage. Now RBI has categorized e-rupee into two types. First one is a retail e-rupee. It is an electronic version of cash primarily meant for retail transactions. It can potentially be used by almost everyone and can provide access to safe money for payment and settlements. Second one is a wholesale CBDC. It is designed for restricted access to select financial institutions. It has the potential to transform the settlement systems for financial transactions undertaken by banks in government securities. It will make the capital market more efficient and secure in terms of operational cost, use of collateral and liquidity management. Then also know that the structure of CBDC can be either token based or account based. A token based CBDC would be a bearer instrument like bank notes. Individual holding the tokens at a given time would be pursuant to own them. This form is viewed as the preferred mode of CBDC as this would be very similar to physical cash. The receiver will have to verify if sender's ownership of token is genuine. Then if we see the account based CBDC, it will require maintenance of record of balances and transactions of all holders of the CBDC and indicate the ownership of the monetary balances. An intermediary will verify the identity of an account holder. This system is more suitable for CBDCW, that is wholesale. Now read the question. Here the answer for this question is option D, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only. Here all the statements are the main features of CBDC. Now we will move on to the next question. See this question reads, the term Vayumitra sometimes mentioned in the news recently is Option A, a chatbot developed by IRCTC. B, the first bagging robot in India. C, a humanoid robot introduced to assess teachers at schools in India. D, a humanoid built by history. Before seeing the answer, let's have a discussion then we'll get back. See actually Vayumitra is a half humanoid. While humanoid is basically a robot with appearance of a human being. We can say that Vayumitra is a half humanoid because she has only a head, two hands and a torso. And she does not have lower limbs. So this is how she looks like. Like any robot, a humanoid or half humanoid's function are determined by the computer systems to which it is connected. Now talking about its purpose, first we will understand the meaning of the word. In the term Vayumitra, Vayoma means space and Mitra means friend. So she was designed and developed to fly aboard unmanned test missions ahead of the Gaganyan human space flight mission. See as we all know, India is planning to send humans into space through the Gaganyan mission. Now you may be wondering why ISRO is using a robot to test their rockets and crew recovery systems. Well, this is because they don't want to risk a human life just it. So Vayumitra is going to take one for the team and do all the dangerous stuff for us. She's going to be doing a lot of important tasks up there like pressing buttons, replacing carbon dioxide canisters and monitoring the crew module. She can receive comments from Earth, respond to voice comments and even report back on the health of the spacecraft. If there is anything wrong up there, she's going to be the first one to know. So just like the artificial intelligence and robotics powered computer system TARS, which you would have seen in the movie Interstellar, Vayumitra humanoid will test the ground for the human space flight. She will also report back to the Earth on the changes occurring in the crew module during the space flight and return such as heat radiation levels. All these functions performed by Vayumitra will help ISRO to understand the safety levels required in the crew module that will eventually fly a human being. So this is the significance of this particular humanoid. Recently the ISRO inertial systems unit have successfully integrated the humanoid with the computer brain, which enables it to read control panels aboard the unmanned test flight and it will be able to communicate with the ISRO ground station. This is why it wasn't used. Now read the question. The answer for this question is option D, a humanoid built by ISRO. Now this question reads which of the following organizations is not part of the World Bank Group? Option A, IDRT, Option B, IDA, Option C, GATT, Option D, MIGA. To answer this question, you should know about World Bank and the World Bank Group. First we will see about them and then we will solve the question. See, the World Bank is an international development organization owned by 180 countries. So it is like a cooperative made of 189 member countries. Its role is to reduce poverty by lending money to the governments of its foreign members to improve their economy and to improve the standard of living of their people. The Bank is also one of the world's largest research centers in development. It has specialized departments that use this knowledge to advise countries in areas like health, education, nutrition, finance, justice, law and environment. Back in 1944, the World Bank was born to rebuild Europe and Japan after World War II. So it is like a superhero squad for countries in need and when it started it had only 38 members. Now most countries are part of this club. But wait, there's more. The World Bank Group is like the Avengers. Different heroes with different skills but all working towards a common goal. We have got the IBRD which loans money to low and middle income countries. Then there's IDA which helps out the low income countries. Then the IFC is like the private sector's BFF. It basically loans money to private companies. Then MIGA is all about encouraging private companies to invest in foreign countries. And last but not the least, we have got the ICSID which helps investors and countries resolve their differences when they don't see ITOI. Hope you are clear with the concept now. Read the question again. The correct answer for this question is option C, general agreement on trade and tariffs because this is related to WTO. Now we will move on to the next question. See, art and culture carries a lot of weightage in UPSC problems. Every year we can expect a question in this area. In art and culture, the dance forms are very important. Look at these previous air questions asked about various dance forms. So this year also we can expect a question about our dance form. So this prompted me to frame this particular question. The question reads, how do you distinguish between Dandia and Garba dances? Statement number one, Garba is performed before the ritual of Aarti and Dandia is performed after the ritual. Statement number two, Garba is performed with a wooden stick but Dandia is performed with an earthen pot. Statement number three, Garba has a more devotional appeal as it is performed to bhajans and chants but Dandia is more of a merriment dance. Select the correct answer using the code given below. Three statements are given and we have to find the correct statement. Now look at statement number one. This statement is correct. Actually, Garba and Dandia, they both originated in Gujarat and they are performed during Navratri. As stated here, Garba is performed before the ritual of Aarti and Dandia is performed after the ritual. Moving on to statement two. Statement two is incorrect. It is Dandia that is performed with a wooden stick and Garba which is performed with a pot. Here the last statement is correct. Garba has a more devotional appeal. This is because it is performed to bhajans and chants praising the main divine forms of Goddess Durga. As we already saw, it is done before the Aarti is performed. On the other hand, Dandia is usually played during the late evening as part of the merriment after the Aarti is done. Since statement one and three are correct, the answer for this question is option A, one and three only. Now we will take up the next question. This question reads, consider the following statements about delimitation commission. Statement number one under article 82, the parliament enacts a delimitation act after every election. Statement number two, orders of the delimitation commission have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court. Option number three, the order of the delimitation commission comes into force on a date specified by the parliament. Which of the above mentioned statements are correct? First we will learn about delimitation commission and then we will get back to the question. First know that delimitation is the process of redrawing boundaries of Lokshaba and state assembly to represent changes in the population. It is mainly done to give equal representation to equal segments of the population. Under article 82, the parliament enacts a delimitation act after every census. Once the act is in force, the union government sets up a delimitation commission and this commission is made up of a retired supreme court judge, the chief election commissioner and the respective state election commissioners. The commission is supposed to determine the number and boundaries of the constituencies. The commission is also tasked with identifying seeds reserved for SC and SC population. All this is done on the basis of the latest census and in case of difference of opinion among the members of the commission, the opinion of the majority prevails. The orders of the delimitation commission have the force of law and it cannot be called in question before any court. The copies of its orders are laid before the House of People and the state legislative assembly concerned but no modifications are permissible therein by them. Moving on to the history of delimitation commission. In the history of the Indian Republic, delimitation commission have been set up four times. 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 under the acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002. However, the 2002 act did not make any changes in total Lok Sabha seeds or their apportionment between various states. It also left out a few states including Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Naha Land and Manipur from the exercise due to security risks. And recently in 2020, the central government has reconstituted the delimitation commission for these four states under union territories of Jammu and Kashmir. Now see the question. Here statement number one is incorrect. Under article 82, the parliament enacts a delimitation act not after every election but after every census. Here statement number two is correct. The orders of the commission cannot be questioned before any court. Here statement number three is incorrect. The orders of the delimitation commission come into force on a date specified by the president and not the parliament. So the correct answer for this question is option B2 only. Now we will take up the next question. This question reads which of the following statements is incorrect about green crackers. So this question is about green crackers. It is very important that we know about these crackers because UPSA gives importance to environment related things. We all know that green crackers were produced as an alternative to the conventional crackers which was hazardous to environment. Last year also Delhi government has passed an order banning the storage sale and use of all type of firecrackers in the national capital till January 1, 2023. This is exactly why we should be aware of information about green crackers. Now let us solve the question. See the first option says that green crackers contain barium nitrate which is the alternate for the hazardous material present in the conventional crackers. This is incorrect. See green crackers are also called as eco-friendly crackers because they are less harmful than the conventional crackers. The constituents that make the conventional crackers harmful to the environment include barium nitrate, arsenic, aluminum, etc. But instead of these green crackers use elements like magnesium, potassium, etc. So the correct answer here is option A but then we will also see other options about green crackers to know more about it. See option 2 says green crackers come in three brands namely SWAS, STAR, SAFAL. It is true. There are three types of green crackers namely SAFAS that is safe water releaser, STAR that is safe thermite cracker and SAFAL that is safe minimal aluminum. All these will reduce the particulate matter released into the environment. They reduce the sound intensity which makes the third option right. See conventional crackers make sound around 160 decibels but in case of green crackers it is reduced to 100 to 120 decibels. This helps in reducing the noise pollution created by conventional crackers. Fourth option says that green crackers approval process is handled by petroleum and explosive safety organization. This is correct. See these crackers were first designed by NERI that is National Environmental and Engineering Research Institute under CSIR. These crackers are produced by licensed manufacturers approved by CSIR. Most importantly petroleum and explosive safety organization is tasked with certifying that the crackers are made without arsenic, mercury and barium and are not loud beyond a certain threshold. If you want to differentiate green crackers from conventional ones then know that there will be a green logo printed on the box of green crackers. So that's all you need to know about green crackers. Now let's take up the next question. This question reads, Prosopsis julefera which is recently seen in news is an example of which of these. So the question asks about prosopsis julefera. Before discussing this question firstly let's talk about invasive species. So we can call them party crashes of the ecosystem. These guys are not native to the environment and they mess up the whole balance by their mere presence. They can either arrive on their own or someone might have brought them to the party uninvited. These invasives have some impressive traits that make them formidable enemies. They can reproduce faster, spread rapidly, adopt to any environmental condition and they are very tough. They can harm the environment, economy and even our health. Apart from this invasive species can also change the soil structure and their allelochemicals destroy the native species and diverse. They take over the ecosystem making it impossible to control them and expensive to get rid of them. A government keeps tabs on these species by maintaining a database of invasive alien species. For aspect this biological survey of India we have got about 154 species of these faunal communities. This includes 56 land and freshwater species and 98 marine species. So know that water hyacinth, prosopis julefera are examples of invasive species. So the right answer for this question is option D invasive species. Now we will move on to the next question. See our next question is about Jal Jeevan Mission. Three statements are given and you have to find the correct statement. Before we approach this question let us first revise some points about Jal Jeevan Mission. See the mission comes under Jal Shakti ministry. The mission is envisioned to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India. Here note the point. The main focus is only on the rural area. Now coming to the works done under the mission. The works of schemes carried out under the mission include in village water supply infrastructure for tap water connection to every households. Second, the scheme focuses on augmenting the drinking water resource. Thirdly, transfer of water. When quantity of water is an issue, water is transferred to areas where there is deficiency in water resources. Fourthly, technological intervention for treatment to make water portable. This is done where water quality is an issue but quantity is sufficient. Fifthly, the scheme focuses on retrofitting of completed and ongoing piped water supply schemes to provide FHTC. Fifthly, it concentrates on grey water management. Seventhly, capacity building of various stakeholders and support activities to facilitate the implementation. So these are some of the important points that you should know about the Jal Jeevan Mission. Now let's take the question. Here statement number one is incorrect. As we saw just now, the scheme focuses only on the rural areas. The mission aims to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India. Here statement number two is correct. This also we saw now grey water management is an important component of this mission. Statement number three is incorrect. According to the recent Jal Jeevan Survection, the states and union territories that have achieved 100% functional household tap connection to every rural household are Goa, Haryana, Gujarat, Punjab, Talangana, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Dadar and Nagar Haveli, Daman and Dio and Puducherry. So the correct answer for this question is option B, two only. Now we will move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. It is about the straits that connects Sea of Aso with Black Sea. We all know Black Sea is close to Ukraine, right? That's exactly why I framed this question. Because of Russia-Ukraine war, we may expect a map question about Ukraine's location or about the water bodies nearby Ukraine. So to be prepared, let's solve this question. Look at the maps here. As you can see the strait that connects Sea of Aso with Black Sea is Kerch Strait. Now we will see the other straits also. Look at this image. The strait that connects Black Sea with Sea of Marmara is Bosporus Strait. And the strait that connects the Sea of Marmara with Agen Sea is Dardanelles Strait. These two straits are significant because they separate Asian Turkey from European Turkey. Finally, the strait of Gibraltar connects Atlantic Ocean directly to the Mediterranean Sea. It is the one that separates Europe from Africa. The correct answer for this question is option B, Kerch Strait. Also, do not forget to revise about other important water bodies near Ukraine. With this, we will take up the next question. See, this question is about right to information. Here the first statement tells that right to information is a part of Fundamental Right and comes in Article 21. This particular statement is wrong. Supreme Court in Raj Narayan v. State of Uttar Pradesh case ruled that right to information is a part of Fundamental Right and comes in Article 19 and not under Article 21. Right to information was enacted in 2005 for the citizens to exercise their right with wider scope. So, information commissioners at central and state level are appointed to provide information. Here statement number two is correct because according to the provisions of the RTI Act, information to an applicant is to be supplied within 30 days from the receipt of application by the public authority and if the information is regarding a citizen's life or liberty, then the RTI application must be granted or refused within 48 hours. Here third statement tells that information related to intellectual property rights is exempted from the purview of the RTI Act. Section 8-1 mentions exemptions against furnishing information under RTI Act. The citizens can only seek information from the government authorities that the government can disclose to the parliament. Some information that can affect the sovereignty and integrity of India is exempted from the purview of RTI. Information relating to internal security, relations with foreign countries, intellectual property rights and cabinet decisions are exempted from RTI. This question asks for the correct statement and the answer for this question is option C, 2 and 3 only. Now let's move on to the next question. This question here is about Syversum and its major six. First of all, let us see some facts about Syversum and then we will try to solve the question. Syversum is one of the major Hindu traditions that worship Lord Shiva. The roots of Syversum can be traced back to prehistoric India and know that there have been evidences of the worship of Lord Shiva in ancient archaeological sites such as in Harappa and Mohanjajaro. In the Rigveda, Lord Shiva is referred by the name Rudra. So there are three major sects in Syversum. They are Saiva Siddhanda, Kashmiri Syversum and Veera Syversum. Let's see them one by one. First is Saiva Siddhanda. This school of doctrine is based on the dualistic principle. It means they propagate their existence of both matter and spirit. Another example is that they believe the existence of God and world. See, this school is popular mainly in South India and derives its doctrine from the works of several Saiva saints and philosophers from the South. The most prominent among them was Nambi under Nambi who composed Tirumarai. This is only considered as the foundational work of the school. Other prominent saints include Appar, Sundarar and Samandar. Then coming to Kashmiri Syversum, see, it derives its name from the region of Kashmir where it gained prominence before the arrival of Islam in India. So according to this school, Shiva is the ultimate reality and there is nothing beyond. And they propagate monosim meaning there is no real separation between God and the world. They are one reality. Now finally, Veera Syversum. See, Veera Syversum rose to prominence during the medieval period in Karnataka and the adjoining areas of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Veera Syversum derives its name from the heroic nature of Shiva himself in his ferocious aspect as Veerabhadra. The sect is also known as Lingayatha sect since its followers wear a Shiva Linga around their necks or on their bodies. The sect was made popular by Basavana in Karnataka in the 12th century. Now look at the question. The first statement says that the Kashmiri Syversum school is dualistic which is contrary to the monastic school of Shiva Siddhambda. This statement is incorrect. We saw that Kashmiri Syversum propagate monosim. Here statement number 2 and 3 are correct as we saw in the discussion. So the correct answer for this question is option D, 2 and 3 only. Now we will move on to the next question. See this question is about the transplantation of human organs and tissues act of 1994. So before solving this question let us see some basic information about transplantation of human organs and tissues act of 1994. See this act was passed by parliament during 1994 and it came into force on February 1995. The main objective of this act is to regulate the removal, storage and transplantation of human organs and tissues for therapeutic purposes and for the prevention of commercial dealings in human organs. Now let's solve this practice question. See the first statement tells that brain death is not an accepted form of death as with this act. This statement is incorrect. Section 2 of this act defines brain death as an accepted form of death. This section pays way for donating organs from brain dead persons. Also the act defines the term near-relative. It means spouse, son, daughter, father, mother, brother and sister. Grandparents and grandchildren were added to near-relative list by the amendment made in 2011. According to section 3 of the act, every hospital which is doing a transplant activity that is either retrieval of organ or organ transplantation must have a transplant coordinator in the hospital. So moving on to the next statement, it tells that this act empowers central government to maintain a complete registry of all donors as well as recipients of different types of organs. So this statement is true. Section 13D of the act empowers the central government to maintain a complete registry of all donors as well as recipients of different types of organs. Take a note that the question asks for the incorrect statement so the answer is option A1 only. Now we will move on to the next question. See this question reads, consider the following statements with reference to African swine fever. So first we will see some information about African swine fever and then we will get back to the question. See African swine flu is a highly contagious and fatal animal disease that infects and leads to an acute form of hemorrhagic fever in domestic and wild pigs. It is caused by a unique enveloped DNA virus placed in the family as far every day. It is a large DNA virus that replicates in the cytoplasm and is the only member of the as far every day family. Members of the pig family are susceptible to infection. See the African swine flu was first directed in Africa in the 1920s. Historically outbreaks have been reported in Africa and parts of Europe, South America and the Caribbean. However since 2007 the disease has been reported in multiple countries across Africa, Asia and Europe in both domestic and wild pigs. Some of the other symptoms of the disease include high fever, depression, anorexia, loss of appetite, hemorrhages in the skin, vomiting and diarrhea among others. Know that the mortality is close to 95% to 100% and since the fever has no cure, the only way to stop its spread is by culling the animal. Now talking about its transmission, African swine flu only spreads from pig to pig so us humans don't have to worry about catching it. However it can be transmitted in a few different ways like direct contact with infected pigs or their bodily fluids or even via contaminated equipments or vehicles. Also it spreads through biological vectors like ticks of the species ornithodorus. Now don't confuse African swine flu with swine flu or swine influenza or hog flu or pig flu. They are different from one another. Humans can be infected with avian swine and other zoonotic influenza viruses such as avian influenza virus subtypes and swine influenza virus subtypes. Human infections are primarily cured through direct contact with infected animals or contaminated environments. Remember these viruses have not cured the ability of sustained transmission among humans. Now if we see this question, here all the statements given here are correct. So the correct answer for the question is option D, 1, 2, 3 and 4 only. Now we will move on to the next question. So this question talks about Da Gong. First we will see some important facts about Da Gong and then we will solve this question. See Da Gong which is also called as sea cow is a marine mammal. It belongs to the family Da Gongide of the order Cyrenia. Note that it is the state animal of Andaman and Nicobar islands. Da Gong is the only existing herbivorous mammal species that lives exclusively in the sea. It mainly feeds on sea grass and other aquatic vegetation. It grows about 3 meter long and weighs about 400 kilogram. Da Gongs have an expanded head and trunk like upper lip and they share a common ancestry with other notable animal kingdom members like elephants. Now if we speak of their habitats, Da Gongs are mostly distributed in shallow tropical waters in the Indo-Pacific region. Australia has the largest Da Gong populations and is found along the western coast of Madagascar along the eastern coast of Africa. That is in the Red Sea and Persian Gulf. Then it is also found around the Indian subcontinent and the western Pacific. Particularly in India they are seen in Gulf of Manar, Gulf of Kutch, Park Bay and the Andaman and Nicobar islands. Remember you have to note that it is not found along the entire coastline of India. They mostly live in the oceans but sometimes they move up into the land especially in areas where there is brackish water. So now if you see the question here statement number one is incorrect. They are not confined to Indian ocean. Then India's first Da Gong conservation reserve is coming up in Tamil Nadu. Actually for this reason only Da Gong was in news in October 2022. So statement three is incorrect. Now talking about the conservation in India Da Gong is protected under schedule one of the Wildlife Protection Act. That is it bans the killing of Da Gong and also bans the purchasing of Da Gong meat. Then Da Gong is categorized as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List of endangered species. Then under the sites convention it is protected under Appendix one. So statement two is correct. Here the question asks for incorrect statements. So the correct answer for the question is option D one and three only. Also we have a previous year question regarding Da Gong in 2015. You can have a look at it. With this note we will take up the next question. This question reads which of the following statements is incorrect about snow leopard. First we will see about snow leopard and then we will get back to the question. See snow leopard is often referred to as a mountain ghost because of its coat that helps it blend in a snowy rocky environment. The tiger is called Lama in the Lisu dialect and is also called Lama Fu. It is a fillet in the genus Pantera native to the mountain ranges of Central and South Asia. Fillet means a mammal of the cat family. So they prey on animals such as blue sheep, i-bugs, marmots, peacas and hares. If we talk about its habitat it inhabits alpine and subalpine zones at elevations of 3000 to 4500 meter ranging from eastern Afghanistan, the Himalayas and the Tibetan Plateau to southern Siberia, Mongolia and western China. In the northern part of its range it also lives at lower elevations. So they are not endemic to Indian subcontinent. Snow leopards become sexually mature at 2 to 3 years and they normally live for 15 to 18 years in the wild. In captivity they can live for up to 25 years. They are largely threatened because of the loss of natural prey species, retaliatory killing due to conflict with humans and also because of illegal trade of its fur and bones. And now if we talk about the conservation efforts it comes under vulnerable category of the IUCN red list. See the snow leopards had been listed as endangered on the red list since 1986. Later in 2017 it has been improved from endangered to vulnerable status. Again it is because of the conservation efforts. Then it is listed in sites Appendix 1. Also it is listed as threatened with extension in Schedule 1 of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals since 1985. Then it is a flagship conservation spaces of India. Also it is part of 21 critically endangered species for the recovery program under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Then India is a party to the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program since 2013. Also know that India has launched Secure Himalayas Initiative which is funded by the Global Environmental Facility and the United Nations Development Program. Then we have the Project Snow Leopard 2009. This program was to promote an inclusive and participatory approach to conserve snow leopards and their habitats. So now if we see the question from the discussion we had we can arrive at the answer option C. We saw during the discussion that snow leopard is not endemic to Indian subcontinent. So with this we will take up the next question. See this question here gives us some details and based on that details we have to find out the correct dynasty. Kalinganagara was the capital city of this dynasty. Puri Jagannath Temple, Konark Sun Temple were built by the empires of this dynasty. Which of the following dynasties best matches the above given description? See the correct answer to this question is option B. Eastern Ganga dynasty. Now we will see in brief about Eastern Ganga dynasty. See Eastern Ganga dynasty is the one which ruled over the regions of present day Odisha, some portions of West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh. And they ruled this region from Kalinga until the beginning of 15th century. They are named as Eastern Ganga dynasty and this is to differentiate them from the Western Ganga dynasty. See the Western Ganga dynasty ruled the ancient Karnataka region. The Eastern Ganga dynasty are also called as Chodagangas. It is believed that the dynasty's early rule might have started in the 5th century itself. The early rulers had Dandapuram as their capital but later on it was moved to Kalinganagara. King Anandavarman Chodaganga is one of the renowned and prominent rulers of the dynasty. He is only responsible for the firm establishment of the Eastern Ganga dynasty. It is believed that Eastern Ganga dynasty rulers married Chola and Chalukyas to strengthen the dynasty. Even Anandavarman Chodaganga was the son of the king Rajaraja Deva and his Chola princess Rajasundri. Apart from this the rulers of the Eastern Ganga dynasty were great patrons of religion and arts. The temples of the Ganga period were among the masterpieces of Hindu architecture. So a prominent example is the Puri Jahanath temple. It is believed that the works of Puri Jahanath temple were started during the period of Anandavarman Chodaganga. And another important temple is Konark San temple which was built by Narasimha Deva I. He was one of the successors of Anandavarman Chodaganga. That's all about Eastern Ganga dynasty. Now we will move on to the next question. Now look at this question here. It is about the electoral bonds. I have framed this question about electoral bonds because in October month Supreme court asked the government about the transparent nature of electoral bonds. So this year UPSE might ask a question about electoral bonds. So now we will try to solve this question. See here the first statement says electoral bond is an interest free banking instrument. See this is correct. Electoral bonds are instruments through which one can donate money to political parties. It was introduced in the year 2018 to bring transparency in the electoral funding process. See this bond is a bearer instrument in the nature of a promissory note and an interest free banking instrument. Second statement says that electoral bonds can be used to make donation for any political party in the country. This is incorrect. See a citizen of India or a body incorporated in India will be eligible to purchase the bond. This is the eligibility criteria for the donor. Also know that donations can be done only to political parties registered under section 29A of the representation of peoples act 1951. And the party should have secured not less than 1% of the votes pulled in the last gender election to the house of people or a legislative assembly. So this is the eligibility criteria for the political party. Now statement number 3 says that electoral bonds have a life of only 15 days. This is correct. See the bonds have a life of only 15 days during which it can be used for making donation to the political parties. Apart from this know that electoral bonds are issued in the denominations of rupees 1000, rupees 10000, rupees 10000, rupees 10000 and rupees 100000. These bonds can be bought from authorized branches of the state bank of India. And the donor is required to pay the amount through a check or a digital mechanism to the authorized SBI branch. Note that cash is not allowed. Finally fourth statement says that electoral bonds bear the name of the donor to ensure transparency in the system of political funding. This statement is incorrect. To maintain anonymity in the funding process, the bond will not contain the name of the donor. Thus the political party will not be aware of the donor's identity. So here we found that statement 1 and 3 are correct and statement 2 and 4 are incorrect. So the correct answer for this question is option B 1 and 3 only. Now we will move on to the next question. See this question is about Mohan Shan declaration. The correct answer for this question is option A, promoting geospatial technologies to achieve the UN's sustainable development goals. This declaration was made during the first UN World Geospatial Information Congress which was held in 2018. Before seeing more about the UN World Geospatial Information Congress, let us take a look at the other options given here. See option B that is international declaration of women's rights set up at the fourth world conference on women is related to the Beijing declaration 1995. Option C, collaborative program for the eradication of neglected tropical disease is related to the London declaration of 2012. Option D, lesbian, gay, bisexual and transgender humans rights is related to 2006 declaration of Montreal. Now coming back to the UN World Geospatial Information Congress. I specifically framed this question because of the second UN World Geospatial Information Congress which was held in Hyderabad, India in 2022. This year we can expect a question in this area. So we will see some important points about UN World Geospatial Information Congress. This Congress was organized by the UN GGIM that is United Nations Committee of Experts on Global Geospatial Information Management. Here note that this body aims to address global challenges regarding the use of geospatial information and to serve as a body for global policy making in the field of geospatial information management. The first Congress was held in 2018 in Beijing, China. The Mohan Shan declaration was adopted here. The Congress is held every four years. So in 2022 the second Congress was held in Hyderabad. The main objective of the Congress is enhancing international collaboration in geospatial information management among member states. The theme of the Congress is geo-enabling the global village. No one should be left behind. Now let us see the focus areas of the Congress. First is the use of geospatial information to collect, manage, report and add on indicators of the SDG. Second is using geospatial information to address climate change. The third is the use of geospatial information to support sustainable development. The last one is aligning the existing national capabilities to the nine strategic pathways of the United Nations Integrated Geospatial Information Framework. So these are some important points about the UN World Geospatial Information Congress. With these points in mind, now we will move on to the next question. Look at this question here. It is about the Global Hunger Index. I have framed this question because Global Hunger Index ranking for 2022 came in the month of October. And India ranked 107 out of 121 countries on the Global Hunger Index. We all know that UPSA has asked many times questions about index. In 2016, Ease of Doing Business Index was asked. In 2017, Global Gender Gap Index was asked. In 2018, Rule of Law Index was asked. So this year we have to be prepared for questions related to indexes. So first we will see some important facts about Global Hunger Index. See, Global Hunger Index is a tool designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at global, regional and national levels. It reflects multiple dimensions of hunger over time. See, each country's Global Hunger Index score is calculated based on a formula and this formula combines four indicators. These four indicators together capture the multidimensional nature of hunger. The indicators are under Nareshmita. It is the share of the population with insufficient calorie intake. Then second is the child stunning. It is the share of children under age 5 who have low height for their age. It reflects chronic under nutrition. Third is the child wasting. So it is the share of children under age 5 who have low weight for their height. This reflects acute under nutrition. Then fourth is the child mortality. It is the share of children who die before their fifth birthday. This partly reflects the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments. And the weightage of indicators and composition of GHI scores is given in this image here. See, based on the scores, the severity level is divided into low, moderate, serious, alarming, extremely alarming. If the GHI score of the country is below 9.9, then the severity of hunger situation is low in that country. But if it is greater than 50, then it means that the hunger situation is extremely alarming in that country. So with this information, now we will take up the question. Know that global hunger index is jointly published by concern worldwide and wealth hunger health. So the answer for this question is option C. Now we will move on to the next question. Look at this question here. This question is about K-15 SLBM. Before approaching the question, let us learn some points about the K-15 SLBM. K-15 SLBM that is K-15 Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile is India's nuclear capable Submarine Launched Ballistic Missile. It has a range of approximately 750 km. The K-15 SLBM is also called by the name Sagarika and it is codenamed as B-05. Know that K-15 SLBM belongs to the K missile family. They are indigenously developed by the BRDO and they are named after Dr. Abdul Kalam. The K family missiles are primarily submarine launched ballistic missiles. This means that the K family missiles can be launched from the submarine. Currently INS Arihant which is India's first nuclear powered submarine can launch K-15 SLBM. See K-15 SLBM was designed for retaliatory nuclear strikes. For example, if our enemy country launches nuclear attack on us, now we will be able to launch retaliatory nuclear strikes on our enemy from INS Arihant with the help of K-15 SLBM. So K-15 SLBM can carry nuclear warheads. The development of these naval platform launched missiles began in the late 1990s. And it was started as a step towards completing India's nuclear trial. Which is nothing but the capability of launching nuclear missiles from land, sea and air based assets. Because K-15 missiles are to be launched from submarines, they are lighter, smaller and stiltier than their land based counterparts. Example, its land based counterpart is the Agni series of missiles. Agni missiles are medium and intercontinental range nuclear capable ballistic missiles. See under the SLBM family, missiles of various ranges have been developed. K-15 Sagarika is one such missile. Apart from this, India has also developed and tested the K-4 missiles from the same family which have a range of 3500 km. It is said that more members of the K family with high ranges are also on cards. And finally note that after US, Russia, UK, France and China, India is the sixth country in the world to have nuclear powered submarines armed with ballistic missiles. With this information, let us approach the question now. Here, statement number one is correct. K-15 SLBM was indigenously developed by DRDO. Statement number two is incorrect. As of now, K-15 SLBM can be launched from INS Arihant and the Kalwari class cannot launch K-15 SLBM. Here third statement is also incorrect. K-15 SLBM has a range of approximately 750 km and not 1500 km. The question asks for incorrect statement. So, the correct answer to this question is option B, two and three only. With this, we will take up the next question. See, this question is about stem cells. Consider the following statements regarding stem cells. Statement number one, stem cells are unspecialized cells. Statement two, stem cells exist in embryo only. Statement three, stem cells can be used in the treatment of cardiovascular diseases. We are looking at this question because UPSC has asked about stem cell technology in prelims 2012 and it is one of the important topics in the science and tech area. With this understanding, now we will solve this question. First, we will take this statement. It tells that stem cells are unspecialized cells. This statement is correct. Basically, there are two types of cells present in the body called as specialized cells and unspecialized cells. Specialized cells have specific capabilities that allow them to perform certain tasks. For example, a red blade cell contains hemoglobin that allows it to carry oxygen. Stem cells have unspecialized capability. That is, they can differentiate into any cell of an organism and have the ability of self-renewal. Here, self-renewal means the ability to divide and make an indefinite number of copies of themselves. So stem cells can be used to produce any other cell type in our body at times of need. The second statement tells that stem cells exist in embryo only. This statement is incorrect because the stem cells exist in both embryo and adult cells. In case of embryo, stem cells are found in amplical cord and in case of adult stem cells are found in bone marrow. The third statement tells that stem cells can be used in treatment of cardiovascular diseases. This statement is true. Cardiovascular illnesses can deprive the heart tissue of oxygen causing the formation of scar tissue. This alters the blood pressure or blood flow. According to research, stem cells from adult bone marrow can differentiate into those required to repire the blood vessels and heart due to the secretion of numerous growth factors. From this discussion, we can answer this question. See the question asks for the correct statement and the answer is option B1 and 3 only. Now, we will move on to the next question. Look at this question here. This question is about monkeypox disease. Before answering the question, let us see some points about monkeypox disease. See, monkeypox disease is an infectious disease caused by the monkeypox virus. The monkeypox virus belongs to the genus orthopox virus of the poxviridae family. Know that monkeypox is a zoonotic disease. This means that monkeypox can spread from animals to humans. It can also spread from humans to other humans and from the environment to humans. Now, talking about the symptoms, the disease carries symptoms that are similar to smallpox. The symptoms of monkeypox include fever, headache, muscle pain along with rashes and blisters on the face, palm, feet, mouth or eyes. See, in most cases, monkeypox is a self-limited disease where the symptoms resolve spontaneously without any specific treatment. However, newborns, young children and people with fundamental immune deficiencies may be more likely to develop severe symptoms. Now, if we see the transmission of the virus, the virus can be transmitted from both animals to human and between the humans. Here, animal-to-human transmission is due to close contact with blood, fluids or skin lations of infected animals. Then, human-to-human transmission could happen through close contact with the individuals infected with monkeypox. It can also spread through large respiratory droplets from coughing and sneezing or through body secretions, skin lations or contaminated articles of infected individuals. Now, talking about the prevention and treatment options, see, there are no specific treatments available for monkeypox. However, due to the genetic similarities of smallpox and monkeypox viruses, vaccines and antiviral agents used for the worldwide eradication of smallpox can also work against monkeypox. The WHO report says that vaccination against smallpox is approximately 85% effective in preventing monkeypox. So, the prior immunization against smallpox may lead to mild monkeypox infection. Now, coming to the question, here, statement number one is correct. Monkeypox is a zoonotic disease. Then, statement number two is also correct. The vaccines used for the prevention of smallpox can also protect against monkeypox. Then, statement number three is incorrect. Monkeypox virus can also spread through large respiratory droplets from coughing and sneezing of infected individuals. So, the correct answer here is option C1 and 2 only. Now, we will move on to the next question. Look at this question. Four statements are given and we have to identify the animal that is best described by the statement. The correct option here is slender loris. It is a small nocturnal primate that is mainly found in southern India and Sri Lanka. The most striking feature of this arboreal animal is the pair of two large closely sit brown eyes. Slender loris has the habit of using the urine to wash its face and limbs, which is thought to soothe or defend against the stink of toxic insects it prefers to eat. Then, recently, the Tamil Nadu government has notified a sanctuary in Kadavur specifically for slender loris. Apart from this, there are some other important points which we will see now. This animal mainly feeds on insects, leaves, flowers, slugs and sometimes eggs of birds. It has two different species associated with it. They are grey slender loris and red slender loris. Let me give you the geographical extent of these two species. Grey slender loris is found in both south India and Sri Lanka while red slender loris is found in Sri Lanka only. We saw that the Tamil Nadu government has notified a sanctuary for slender loris. This sanctuary is for grey slender loris. Now, look at its conservation status. IUCN has listed them as endangered. It is placed in Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act of India. Then, slender loris is placed in Appendix 2 of Scythe's Convention. So, these are some important points about slender loris. With these points in mind, now we will move on to the next question. Look at this question. This question is about PSLV and GSLV. See, this type of science and tech topic is very favourite for UPSC. Now, look at this previous question here. A similar question about India's satellite launch vehicles was asked in 2019 UPSC Prelims. So, the question we are going to discuss is very important for your exam. Now, before answering the question, let us understand the basic differences between PSLV and GSLV. First, let us see about generation. PSLV is the third generation satellite launch vehicle of India whereas GSLV is the fourth generation satellite launch vehicle of India. Note that the first and second generation vehicles are SLV and ASLV respectively. Now, we will see about the satellite delivery and the delivery orbits. PSLV is designed to deliver the Earth observation or remote sensing satellites to sun-synchronous circular polar orbits of 600 km altitude. Note that PSLV has earned the title the workhorse of ISRO because of its consistent delivery of various satellites to low Earth orbits. If we take GSLV, GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication satellites to the highly elliptical geosynchronous transfer orbits. Now, talking about the stages and engines, the PSLV is a four stage launch vehicle with first and third stage using solid rocket motor and second and fourth stage using liquid rocket engines. The PSLV also uses six strap-on motors which are mounted on the sides to augment the thrust provided by the first stage. Note that depending upon the number of strap-on boosters, the PSLV is classified into various versions like Corallon version, PSLV-G, PSLV-XL etc. Now, coming to GSLV, the GSLV has only three stages. The first stage is using a solid rocket motor. Then the second stage is using a liquid rocket engine and the third stage is using indigenously built cryogenic engine. So, the cryogenic engine carries liquid hydrogen as fuel and liquid oxygen as oxidizer. GSLV also uses solid and liquid strap-on motors for the thrust. There are different variants of GSLV based on the lift-off capacity. They are GSLV Mach 1, GSLV Mach 2 and GSLV Mach 3. With this information, now let's approach the question. Read the question. The first statement here is incorrect. We saw that PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle and GSLV is a three-stage launch vehicle. Here, statement number two is also incorrect. PSLV does not use cryogenic engines and it uses only solid motors and liquid engines. GSLV uses a cryogenic engine for its third stage. Here, statement number three is correct. The question asks for incorrect statement. So, the correct answer for this question is option A, one and two only. Now, we will move on to the next question. Look at this question. Four statements about Sukanya Samritya Yojana are given and we have to select the correct statement. Here, statement number one is correct. Sukanya Samritya Yojana was launched by our Prime Minister as a part of Beti Bachao Beti Batao campaign. It was launched on 22 January 2015 in Panipat, Haryana. Statement two is also correct. This small-saving scheme was launched targeting the parents of girl children. The main objective of the scheme is to help meet the education and marriage expenses of the girl child. Here, statement number three is actually incorrect. As per the scheme, there can be only one account per girl child under the Sukanya Samritya Yojana. The account can be opened for a maximum of two girl children per family. But in the case of twins or triplets, then a maximum of three SSY accounts is allowed. Statement number four is also incorrect. As of December 2022, Uttar Pradesh is the state with the highest number of accounts under SSY. UP is followed by Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka. So, the correct answer is option A, one and two only. As a part of this discussion, we will also see some important points about this scheme. Under this scheme, an account can be opened in post office or branches of authorized banks in the name of a girl child by submitting the birth certificate till she attains the age of 10. Note only one account can be opened in the name of the girl child and the account can be transferred anywhere in India from one post office or bank to another. The account can be opened with a minimum of Rs. 250. Note a minimum of Rs. 250 and a maximum of Rs. 150,000 can be deposited in a financial year. The interest for the amount will be calculated on a yearly compounded basis and will be credited to the account. One premature withdrawal of up to 50% will be allowed on attaining the age of 18 for meeting the educational expenses. The account will mature on the completion of 21 years from the date of opening of the account or on the marriage of the account holder, whichever is earlier. So, these are some points about Sukanya Samrati Ujna. With these points in mind, now we will move on to the next question. See, this question reads which of the following best describes the term medium altitude long endurance that is male. See, this medium altitude long endurance is basically an UAV that is unmanned aerial vehicle which can fly up to medium altitude with long endurance that is an extended period of time. As you all know, UAV has the capability to fly autonomously or through remote control allowing for pre-programmed flight plans and operational use in daylight or in darkness. Whenever UPSA asks such question, see if you can arrive at the answer by looking for key terms. It will help you in saving some time. So, the question just ask for the general definition. See, India's indigenous medium altitude long endurance unmanned aerial vehicle development program that is Rustam 2 achieved an important milestone by reaching an altitude of 25,000 feet and an endurance of 10 hours. That is why this version news in October 2022. See, DRDO is expected to complete all user trials by August 2023. Parallely, a separate project for the weaponization of the Rustam UAV is also underway. Remember, it has been designed and developed by the Aeronautical Development Establishment, Bengaluru with production partners being Hindustan Aeronautics Limited and Bharat Electronics Limited. It is also known as Tapas BH, that is tactical airborne platform for aerial surveillance beyond horizon 201. Currently, Tapas BH has an operating altitude of 30,000 feet, endurance of 24 hours with electro-optical and synthetic aperture radars and a range of 250 kilometers. It can carry a variety of payloads of up to 350 kgs maximum. Some of its features are it is being developed to carry out surveillance and reconnaissance rules and is capable of carrying different combinations of advanced payload and capable of auto landing among others. It is being designed to acquire real-time high quality pictures and signal intelligence from fields of concern at medium to long ranges. Then, it technologically matches contemporary unmanned aerial vehicles and will also be cheaper than the imported ones. The correct answer for this question is option D, an unmanned aerial vehicle that flies at an altitude window of 10,000 to 30,000 feet for extended durations of time, typically 24 to 48 hours. Now, we will take up the next question. See, this question talks about United Nations Security Council. First, we will see some basic facts about UNSC, then we will get back to the question. See, the Security Council was established by the UN Charter in 1945. It is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations. The other five organs of the United Nations are the General Assembly, the Trustorship Council, the Economic and Social Council, the International Court of Justice and the Secretariat. Its primary responsibility is to work to maintain international peace and security. Some of the other functions of UNSC are listed here. You can go through it. The Council is headquartered at New York. So, talking about its members, see, the Council has 15 members, the five permanent members and 10 non-permanent members who are elected for two years term. The five permanent members are United States, the Russian Federation, France, China and the United Kingdom. Each year, the General Assembly elects five non-permanent members for a two-year term. The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis. The Council's presidency is a capacity that rotates every month among its 15 members. Talking about the voting powers, each member of the Security Council has one vote. Decisions of the Security Council on matters are made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the conquering votes of the permanent members. A no vote from one of the five permanent members blocks the passage of the resolution. That is, even if one member says no, then the resolution cannot be passed. Any member of the United Nations which is not a member of the Security Council may participate without vote in the discussion of any question brought before the Security Council whenever the later considers that the interests of that member are specifically affected. So, this means that any member of the United Nations can participate in a discussion if the Security Council feels that the interest of that particular member is involved in the issue. Now see the question. The first statement says, only on the recommendation of United Nations Security Council, the General Assembly can decide to admit a state to the United Nations. Second statement states that it is the only organ of the United Nations that has the power to make decisions that member states are obligated to implement. Here, both the statements are correct. So, the correct answer for this question is option C, both 1 and 2. Now we will see the next question. See, this question talks about vulture species. Now before answering the question, let us see some basic information about vultures. See, vultures are scavenging birds of prey. They have been divided into New World vultures and Old World vultures. The New World vultures include the Californian condors and the Andean condors. And the Old World vultures include the White Trump and the Red-headed vultures. New World vultures are found in North and South America. Old World vultures are found in Europe, Africa and Asia. But according to sources, there are no vultures in Australia and Antarctica. Now with respect to India, if you see, nine species of vultures exist in India. You can see them in the image given here along with their IUCN status. Among them, five belong to the genus Gips. In these five species, the three Gips vulture namely the White Trump vulture, Long-Built vulture and Slender-Built vulture are residents of India. They are reminding to the Eurasian Gryphon vulture and the Himalayan Gryphon vulture are largely wintering species. They play a vital role in the ecosystem by cleaning up the rot and carcasses left in the open. They scavenge on carcasses of animals and thereby help to keep the environment clean. In addition to this, they also scavenge on human carcasses. So, their removal will result in an increase in putrefying or decaying carcasses. Now we will see some of the threats faced by them. Firstly, the poisoning from dichlofenac. See, this dichlofenac is used as a veterinary non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug for livestock. This drug treats pain and inflammatory diseases such as got in carcasses that vultures would feel on. And this affects the vulture and leads to its death. See, you won't believe this. Just 0.4 to 0.7% of animal carcasses contaminated with dichlofenac is sufficient to decimate 99% of vulture populations. So, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change released the Action Plan for Vulture Conservation in the year 2006. This included the ban of veterinary use of dichlofenac by the Drug Controller General of India. Then, the loss of natural habitats due to anthropogenic activities, electrocution by power lines are some of the other threats faced by vultures. Remember, India has taken two major steps to conserve the vulture population. One is the Action Plan for Vulture Conservation 2020-25. It was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Next is the SAVE program. So, now if you see the question, the correct answer for this question is option A1 only. We already have a previous question in 2012 with respect to vultures. You can have a look at it. Now, we'll move on to the next question discussion. Look at this question here. This question is about Agni Prime missiles. So, before answering the question, let us learn some points about Agni missiles and Agni P missile. First, let us take Agni missiles. See, Agni missiles are medium to long-range surface-to-surface ballistic missiles. They were developed by the Defence Research Development Organization. Currently, there are six missiles in the Agni series. They are Agni 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and Agni P. Among these missiles, Agni 5 has a maximum range of up to 5000 km. Note that all these missiles are able to deliver nuclear warheads. Now, let us see a few facts about Agni Prime. The Agni Prime or Agni P is a two-stage surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed by the DRDO. It is a medium-range ballistic missile with a dual redundant navigation and guidance system. Here, the term dual redundant means that there are two operating systems in the missile. So, if the primary system fails, the second backup system will run the missile. Note that the missile uses solid propellant to run the engine and it has a range capability between 1000 to 2000 km. The Agni Prime is also called a canisterised missile. This means that the Agni Prime missile can be launched with the help of a canister. Here, the canister is nothing but the cylindrical container which holds the missile and acts as a launching tube of the missile. Also, note that Agni P is a nuclear-capable missile. This means that Agni P is capable of delivering a nuclear warhead. With this information, let us approach the question. Read the question. With reference to Agni Prime missile, consider the following statements. It is a two-stage medium-range ballistic missile that can be launched with the help of canister. This statement is true. We saw this in the discussion. Then, statement 2, dual redundant navigation and guidance system is one of the features of Agni Prime. Statement 3, it is capable of delivering a nuclear warhead. So, all the statements given here are correct. So, the correct answer for this question is option D, 1, 2 and 3. Now, we will take up the next question. See, this question is about air quality index. We are seeing this particular question because UPAC has asked a question from the same topic in 2016 prelims. Before solving our prelims question, let us discuss some basic information about air quality index. See, air quality index is an eight-parameter-based air quality monitoring system which was launched by the Central Pollution Control Bureau in the year 2014. Basically, there are six AQI categories. They are good, satisfactory, moderately polluted, poor, very poor and severe. AQI and its respective color code and health impacts are given below. Pause this video and just go through it. Note that AQI transforms complex air quality data of various pollutants into a single number and color for the public to easily understand about the air standard in their locality. Now, the eight pollutants which are considered for the calculation of AQI are PM10, PM2.5, here PM stands for particulate matters. Then nitrogen dioxide, sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide, ozone, ammonia and lead. With this knowledge, we can solve our prelims practice question. We have seen that ozone, ammonia and lead are considered for the calculation of AQI, whereas carbon dioxide and mercury are not considered. Hence, the answer for this question is option C, 4 and 5 only. Now, let's take up the next question for discussion. See, this question is about the bronze statues of Chola period. Before solving this question, let us look about the lost wax technique which is used to craft the bronze statues of the Chola period. This technique involves the combination of beeswax, a kind of camphor and a little oil. Firstly, the beeswax and oil are mixed using hands. Once mixed, the mixture is then used to do precisely sculpt the specific figure and all its intricate features. The particular wax model is subsequently coated with clay and then dried and placed in an oven where the wax melts. Then, the next step is melting Panchalogam which is a metal alloy of bronze. Once melted, it is poured into the clay mould which is now empty of the wax. Then, the melted bronze completely fills the mould and is lifted to settle, harden and then to cool. Once the process is complete, the clay mould is then broken off leaving only the bronze sculpture. Now, let's take up the question. First statement tells that the bronze statues of the Chola period are mostly devoid of ornamentation. This statement is correct because it is one of the main features of Chola bronze statue. Its other important features are these statues have poses and expressions on the face of the figures which are so detailed. Now, see the second statement. It tells that no bronze sculpture from the Chola period can be exactly replicated. This statement is also correct. After casting the statue using lost wax technique, the finer details are carved, the statue is cleaned and then the markings or blemishes from the sculpture are removed. Finally, the bronze sculpture is then smoothened and then polished. This elaborate process makes every statue unique and very difficult to replicate. Please note that the question asks for the incorrect statement and both of the given statements are correct. Hence, the correct answer is option D, neither 1 nor 2. Now, we will move on to the next question. Look at this question here. It is about coffee cultivation in India. See, UPSC has not yet asked directly any questions about coffee. So, this year we may expect a question on it. And that's why I framed this question. Now, let's solve it. See here, statement 1 says that in India, coffee is grown predominantly in the slopes of northeastern states. This statement is incorrect because in India, coffee is grown predominantly in the slopes of the southern states. In fact, coffee growing areas can be grouped into three distinct categories. First one is the traditional areas which includes Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It is believed that Indian coffee sector began with planting of seven seeds of mocha during 1600 A.D. by the legendary holy saint Baba Buddha in Karnataka. Second one is the non-traditional area which includes areas comprising Andhra Pradesh and Orissa in the eastern Ghats region. Third one only is the northeastern states. So, when compared to traditional areas, non-traditional areas and northeast areas recently only started coffee cultivation. Second statement says that Assam is the largest coffee producing state in India. This statement is also incorrect. Just now we saw that coffee cultivation is predominant in the southern states and the largest coffee producing state in India is Karnataka. Assam is the largest tea producing state in the country. The top five coffee producing states are Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Orissa. Also know that Brazil is the largest coffee producer in the world. Third statement says that Coffee Board of India is a statutory organisation which is tasked with the promotion and welfare measures of the coffee sector. This is correct. Like tea board, there is also a board for coffee sector. Coffee board is a statutory organisation constituted under section four of the Coffee Act 1942. It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The board comprises 33 members including the chairperson. The remaining 32 members representing various interests are appointed as per provisions under Rule 3 of the Coffee Rules 1955. The board is mainly focused in the areas of research, extension, development, market intelligence, external and internal promotion and welfare measures. If you want to know more about coffee cultivation in India, then watch our 22nd October 2023 analysis. Now the correct answer for this question is option C3 only. Now we will take up the next question. Look at this question here. It is about the solar and lunar eclipses. I have framed this question because in the month of October, solar eclipse happened. So there is a chance that UPSC might ask question about eclipses. Now let's solve this question. First statement says that solar eclipse happens when sun comes in between the earth and the moon. This is actually incorrect. During a solar eclipse, the moon only comes in between earth and sun. Solar eclipse occurs when part or all of the sun is blocked out by the moon as viewed from the earth. So while seeing from earth, there will be shadow on the sun. That shadow will be cast by the moon. This is about the solar eclipse arrangement. And this image is the resultant of moon blocking the sun. See, there are many types of solar eclipses. When the entire sun is blocked by the moon, it is called as total solar eclipse. When only part of the sun is blocked by the moon, it is called partial solar eclipse. When the moon is at its farthest point in its elliptical path of orbit, it will be only capable of blocking a part of the sun. This will leave the periphery of the sun still visible. This type is called annular solar eclipse. Now the second statement says that lunar eclipse happens when moon comes in between sun and the earth. See, this statement is also incorrect. During lunar eclipse, the earth comes in between sun and the moon. Here the light from the sun will be blocked by the earth. So the shadow of the earth will be cast on the moon. Like solar eclipse, lunar eclipses are also of three types. Total lunar eclipse, which occurs when the entire moon is in the earth's darkest shadow, that is, umbral shadow. Partial lunar eclipse occurs when the sun, earth and moon aren't exactly aligned. So only part of the moon passes into earth's umbral shadow. Penumbral lunar eclipse occurs when the sun, earth and the moon are not fully aligned. Here, the moon passes through only the penumbra shadow of the earth and does not pass through the darkest part of the earth's shadow, that is, umbra. So these are the three types of lunar eclipses. Now coming to the question, we saw that both the statements are incorrect. So the correct answer is option D, neither 1 nor 2. Now we will move on to the next question. Look at this question. This question is about the Aik Bharat Sreshta Bharat program. Here four options are given and we have to find which one of these options is incorrect. Now, before answering the question, let us learn some points about Aik Bharat Sreshta Bharat program. See, this program was launched on 31st October 2015 on the occasion of the 140th birth anniversary of Saddar Balabhai Patil. So this program was announced to commemorate Patil's effort for making sure that India remained as a single nation during the difficult times of post-independence period. So through this initiative, the knowledge of the culture, traditions and practices of different states and union territories will be shared between them through the common platform. So this will lead to an enhanced understanding and bonding between the states and the union territories, thereby strengthening the unity and integrity of India. Note that all states and union territories are covered under this program. As part of this Aik Bharat Sreshta Bharat program, the states or union territories are paired at national level and these pairing will be in effect for one year or till the next round of pairing. The state or union territory level pairings would be utilized for state level activities. Apart from this pairing, there is also district level pairings and it would be independent of the state level pairings. See, the activities carried out under Aik Bharat Sreshta Bharat program will be very useful to link various states and districts in annual programs. This in turn will connect people through exchanges in areas of culture, tourism, language, education etc. In addition to this, the citizens will be able to experience the cultural diversity of a much larger number of state or union territory while realizing that India is one. Note that Ministry of Education has been designated as the nodal ministry for coordination of the Aik Bharat Sreshta Bharat program. Now let's approach the question. Read the question. Here option A that is it was launched on 31st October 2015 to commemorate Sardar Vallabhai Patel's contribution to India's unity. We know the statement is correct. Then look at option B. This is incorrect. It is implemented by the Ministry of Education. So now we can arrive at the answer. The answer is option B. But we have to verify whether the other options are correct or not. See option C. It aims to connect people across the states through exchanges in the areas of culture, tourism, language and education. This statement is correct. Look at option D. All the states and union territories of India are covered under this program. This statement is also correct. So the correct answer is option B. Now we will move on to the next question. Our next question is about the office of governor. Three statements are given and we have to find which among them are the situational discretionary powers of the governor. Now we will have a discussion in this topic and then we will get back to the question. First let's see about the discretionary powers of governor. Article 163 provides constitutional discretionary powers to the governor. Article 163 says that governor should act in accordance with the advice of chief minister and his council of ministers except in certain cases where he can use his discretion. Pay attention here. The constitution provides discretionary powers only to the governor and not to the president. Constitutional discretionary powers of governor are firstly the governor has the discretionary power to reserve a bill passed by the legislature of a state for the consideration of the president. This is provided in article 200. Secondly the governor acts in his discretion in the case for the recommendation of the president's rule in the state and article 356. Thirdly the governor can exercise discretion by asking for specific information regarding administrative and legislative matters of the state. These are some of the cases of discretionary powers of the governor provided by the Indian constitution. Here note that there is another form of discretionary power which is also used by the governor which is called the situational discretionary power. Let's see what are they. First is the appointment of the chief minister. This is in case of hung assembly. Hung assembly means an assembly where there is no clear majority. Second is the dismissal of the council of minister when they cannot prove majority in the assembly. So these are some of the cases of situational discretionary powers to the office of governor. Now we will see the question here. Statement 1 and 3 are situational discretionary powers of the governor and statement 2 is the constitutional discretionary power of the governor. So the correct answer here is option C 1 and 3 only. Now we will move on to the next question. Look at this question here. Here some set of statements about a particular rice is given and we have to find which is the rice variety that is being described here. So the question reads it is a black coloured rice grown widely in North India's Terai Belt. The rice is also known by the name Buddha rice as it is associated with Buddha's life. The rice is well known for its medicinal and curative properties as it is rich in antioxidants which among the following is such a rice. Here there are four options. The correct answer is option B Kala Namak rice. Now let us see some important points about Kala Namak rice. See the term Kala Namak literally means black salt. The Kala Namak rice got its name because of the black coloured husk and black coloured rice. Kala Namak is one of the finest quality rice that has a strong fragrance. This scented rice variety has been cultivated since 600 BC that is probably before the Buddhist era. The Kala Namak rice is also known as Buddha rice because it is believed that Buddha broke his fast on the day of enlightenment when Keer made from Kala Namak rice was offered to him. Kala Namak is grown widely in UP's Terai Belt. Know that Terai is the low land region in North India and Southern Nepal. This region lies south of the outer foothills of the Himalayas, the Shivalic Hills and the north of the Indo-Gangetic Plain. The low land Terai Belt is characterised by tall grasslands, salt forests and clay rich swamps and this is where the Kala Namak rice grows. Now, talking about the benefits of Kala Namak rice, the Kala Namak rice is known for its medicinal and curative properties. It is rich in antioxidants and has a high anthocyanin content. This helps in the reduction of heart diseases and improves the health of the skin. Apart from this, the Kala Namak rice is also rich in iron and zinc which helps in regulating blood related problems. Recent research has shown that Kala Namak rice is excellent for diabetic patients. So because of these valuable properties, the export potential of Kala Namak rice is huge. To do its long-standing association with Buddha, Kala Namak rice is regarded as holy rice. So, they are now exported to the Buddhist countries namely Japan, Thailand, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Bhutan. That's all with this information. Now we will move on to the next question. This question is about MSP or minimum support price. Three statements are given and we have to find the correct statement. Before we answer this question, let us first revise about MSP. Minimum support price is the minimum price set by the government for certain agricultural products at which the products would directly be bought from the farmers if the open market prices are less than the cost incurred. So from this we can infer that MSP is a form of government intervention. Now why does the government provide MSP? See, the prices of agricultural commodities often vary due to various factors in our country. If a crop has seen a good harvest during a particular year it may see a sharp fall in its prices. Fall in prices means lesser profit for farmers. So farmers may not sow the crop in the next year which will affect the supply. To counter this, MSP is fixed by the government which is supposed to encourage higher investments and production of crops. It also protects farmers from steep decline in prices. Now who and how is this price decided? Now who decides the price and how it is decided? See, the MSP is fixed on the recommendation of Commission for Agricultural Commission Prices, that is CACP. It considers various factors to determine the prices before making its recommendation. Here in this image, I have given some of the determinants of MSP which are considered by the CACP. So based on all these inputs, the commission finalizes its recommendation which are then submitted to the government. The government in turn circulate the CACP reports to state governments and concerned central ministries for their comments. After receiving the feedback from them, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs of the Union Government takes a final decision on the levels of MSPs and other recommendations made by the CACP and finally announces the MSP. The Food Corporation of India which is the central agency of the Government of India along with other state agencies undertakes procurement of crops. Remember, the Government of India sets the MSP twice a year prior to sowing season. That is one for Rabi and another for Karif. Here the key point is that MSPs are declared during the sowing season. See, this will help the investors to make an investment into the crop. Now, we will get back to the question. From a discussion we know that statement one is incorrect. It is the CCEA which sets the MSP twice a year. The CACP just gives the recommendation. Statement number two is correct. It is one of the main objective of MSP. Statement number three is also correct. Due to its trade distorting nature, the CACP is placed under the Amperpox subsidy of AOA. So, the correct answer here is option B2 and 3 only. Now, we will move on to the next question. See, this next question is based on the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index 2022. Four statements are given and we have to find the correct statement. Here, statement number one is incorrect. In absolute terms India has the highest number of multi-dimensionally poor people in the world. In India, 228.9 million people are multi-dimensionally poor which is around 16.4 percentage of the total population of India. India is followed by Nigeria with 96.7 million Nigerians who are multi-dimensionally poor. An additional point that you have to note here is that Niger is the country with the highest number of people who are multi-dimensionally poor. Around 91 percentage of people there are multi-dimensionally poor. Here, statement number two is correct. India has the highest number of multi-dimensionally poor children in the world. Around 97 million children in India are multi-dimensionally poor. Statement three is also correct. In the last 15 years that is between 2005-6 and 2019-21 415 billion Indians exited or came out of poverty. In the same period, the incidence of poverty fell from 55.1 percent to 16.4 percent. Here, statement number four is incorrect because the highest number of poorest of the poor people live in sub-Saharan Africa followed by Arab states and then South Asia. The order given in the statement is incorrect. Since statements two and three are correct the correct answer here is option B, two and three only. Here, statement four talks about the poorest of the poor. Who are they? To understand this better, we must first have a clear idea about multi-dimensional poverty index. See, the global multi-dimensional poverty index constructs a deprivation profile of each household and persons through 10 indicators. The 10 indicators are brought under three different categories such as health, education and living standards. The details about the indicators within each category are given here in this floor chart. Ask the video and have a look at it. Now, coming to the calculation mechanism of deprivation score all indicators are equally weighted within each category. Let me explain this to you briefly. The six indicators in the living standards category have equal weight assigned to them which is the same for the other indicators in the health and education category also. The global multi-dimensional poverty index identifies people as multi-dimensionally poor if their deprivation score is 1 by 3 or higher. A person is considered the poorest of poor when the particular person is deprived in all the 10 indicators. Nigeria has the highest number of people living in this category. Finally, note that multi-dimensional poverty index is released by UNDP and OPHI. Here UNDP stands for United Nations Development Program and OPHI stands for Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative. So with this information, we will now move on to the next question. See, this question is about stubble burning and the efforts of government in addressing this issue. Before solving this question, we need to understand what is stubble burning. See, stubble burning refers to burning of crop leftovers particularly the crop residues of paddy like the rice star and rice stock. Farmers follow this practice as it is the cheapest way to clear the residues in the field. This has been done primarily to prepare fields for the next crop which has to be sown in the window of 3 to 4 weeks from the last cultivation period. The stubble burning results in the formation of smog in New Delhi which in turn affects the quality of air in the national capital region. Now, we will look at the inside-to and excite-to efforts for reducing stubble burning. Inside-to initiatives include efforts which are concentrated around and inside the field where the stubble burning takes place. It includes introduction of poosa decomposer and short-duration rice varieties etc. Let us see about these two initiatives briefly. See, poosa decomposer is a liquid-like compound when sprayed on the stubble will lead to relatively immediate decomposition of the stubble. Short-duration rice varieties help in increasing the time period between the cariff and deroby cultivation. This type of rice varieties includes PR-121, PR-130 and PR-131 With increasing window between the cultivation and sowing of the next crop the need for burning of stubble comes down. Then excite-to efforts refers to initiatives which are not concentrated on the fields. This includes torrefaction technique, setting up rice bioparks etc. Now, we will see briefly about torrefaction and rice bioparks. Torrefaction refers to a thermal process which converts biomass into a coal-like material and rice bioparks will function with paddy straw residues as an input to produce products like paper, cardboard etc. In both the techniques farmers are paid for their crop residues. This in turn may encourage them to remove the residues without burning. With this knowledge now let us solve this question. We know that pusa decomposer is an example of incite-to efforts whereas torrefaction and setting up rice bioparks are the example of the excite-to efforts. The question asks for the incite-to efforts only. So the answer is option A one only. Now we will take up the next question. Look at this question here. It is about Taj Mahal. Four options are given and we have to find out the incorrect statement. First of all let us see some facts about Taj Mahal and then we will solve this question. Taj Mahal was built by Mughal Emperor Sajagan to honour his wife Mumtaz Mahal. It is one of the seven wonders of the world. It houses the tomb of both Mumtaz Mahal and Sajagan. It is located in Agra on the banks of Yamuna. The Muslim architecture takes inspiration from Indian Persian and Arabic architecture. It is built out of white marbles from the Makrana mines from the Indian state of Rajasthan. Now let see some important details about the structure. See the chief architect of Taj Mahal was Ustad Ahmad Lahori. Know that Taj Mahal is located on top of an elevated square plinth that features four minarets standing at each of the four corners of the structure. The interior of the architecture was decorated with marble jelly works, calligraphy and Paitra Dura. Here Paitra Dura is a decorative art form that involves inserting pieces of interesting colored material into depressions in a base object to form ornament or pictures. And jelly or pierced screens involves creating perforated slabs of stones. This was done during those times to ensure air flow. One important fact you have to know here is about the mini Taj of Tekon. It is BB Ka Makbara. It is located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra. So it is the burial place of Dilres Banu Beham who is the first wife of Aurangasi the Mohal Emperor. Now let's take up the question. From what we saw just now, we know that the incorrect option is option B only. This is because it says that Taj Mahal only contains the term of Mumtaj Mahal. So with this, we have come to the end of the question. Thank you for watching the video. If you have found a video to be useful share it with your friends subscribe to the channel. Happy learning.