 Hello, Aspirants. In this video, we will be analyzing the questions in the UPSC civil services problems 2020 that reflected from daily Hindi news analysis program of Shankar IAS Academy. We are going to take the questions based on set A of problems 2020. For some of the questions, we were able to arrive at the correct answer directly based on the daily Hindi news analysis program. Whereas for some of the questions, we were able to improve the probability of arriving at the correct answer with what we have discussed in the news analysis sessions. Thus, we have also chosen those questions for which we were able to arrive at 50% probability of correctly answering the question based on the information from the daily Hindi news analysis. In other words, these are the questions where we can eliminate two options based on the information to the question from the analysis sessions. We suggest and request viewers and aspirants to watch the video fully to get a wholesome understanding. We are happy to find that around 36 questions reflected from our daily Hindi news analysis program. Now let's start our discussion. Let's take the first question in set A that is based on Aadhar. If you see the second statement of this question, it revolves around whether the state can or cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data. Now we have discussed about this aspect on our 23rd November 2019 Hindi news analysis where we have mentioned about the 2018 judgment. The judgment is the Justice case Putta Swami and another versus Union of India and others. In this case law, Supreme Court struck down the last phrase in the main provision of section 57 of Aadhar Act of 2016 which is the Aadhar targeted delivery of financial and other subsidies, benefits and services act of 2016. The last phrase which was struck down was or any contract to this effect. So this makes the statement 2 as correct. If you know statement 2 is correct, you can eliminate options A and C and by this the probability of attempting the correct answer to this question has increased to 50 percentage. The next if you take the second question in set A, it is about powers of Rajasabha compared to Lok Sabha. The question asks Rajasabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha. See we have discussed about Rajasabha and its powers many times like we have discussed it on 13th May 2020 in the news analysis then on 22nd June 2020 then also on 21st September 2020. On 22nd June 2020, we have orally made a statement that Rajasabha is placed on equal footing with Lok Sabha in terms of passage of ordinary bills in terms of constitutional bills etc. Now here when we say constitutional bills we are referring to the constitutional amendment bills only. So through this you can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option B amending the constitution. Additionally on the same day we also said that Rajasabha has unequal powers or special powers in relation to creation of all India services under article 312 of Indian constitution. Already we have discussed about this all India services statement on our 13th May Hindi news analysis also where we have mentioned that in terms of creation of all India services Rajasabha is not placed in equal footing with Lok Sabha. So if you are clear about this you can eliminate option A then if you see on 21st September 2020 in the news analysis we have mentioned that Rajasabha and Lok Sabha are not equal in terms of removal of government because no confidence motion can be introduced only in Lok Sabha and not in Rajasabha or you can also consider the statement we made on 23rd July 2020 in the news analysis while we were comparing Lok Sabha and Rajasabha. At that time we said that Rajasabha cannot make or un-make the government. Simply put Rajasabha cannot pass no confidence motion to remove the ruling government. So by this you can eliminate option C. So through this elimination options also you can arrive at the correct answer which is option B amending the constitution. Next let us take this third question which is on MPLAT scheme. We have discussed this scheme on our 17th June 2020 in the news analysis and also on 20th June 2020 in the news analysis and we have also discussed this in our target 2020 prelim series for the month of April 2020. Now during the analysis on 17th June 2020 we have discussed clearly about the first two statements given in the question. We have covered the same aspects in our April 2020 target series as well. In the target series we have mentioned that the funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable that means the unused funds do not lapse that is the unused funds can be carried forward to the next year. If you know this fact you can easily say that statement 3 is incorrect. So from that we can eliminate options B and C and through this we can improve the probability of attempting the correct answer to 50% in this question. Now next if we take this question on fundamental rights it is about the protection against untouchability. On our 22nd November 2019 in the news analysis we have categorically mentioned that Article 17 of Indian Constitution deals with abolition of untouchability and we know that Article 17 comes under the category of right to equality. So from this you can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option D. Now next if we take this sixth question in set A it is with reference to macro economic framework statement. The question asks the document is presented because it is mandated by which of the following and the correct answer is provisions of fiscal responsibility and budget management Act of 2003 that is FRBM Act of 2003. On our 6th July 2019 in the news analysis we have made this statement that is as part of budget two important statements were laid before the parliament that are based on the provisions of FRBM Act. These important statements are macro economic framework statement and medium term fiscal policy and fiscal policy strategy statement. These two statements are presented to the parliament based on section 3 of the FRBM Act of 2003. This we have mentioned in the 6th July 2019 in the news analysis. So from this you can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option D. Now let's take this ninth question which is based on free legal services provided by legal services authorities. The question asks to which of the following types of citizens free legal services is provided by legal services authorities. Actually we have discussed about this aspect on our 18th May 2020 in the news analysis when we discussed about free legal aid and national legal services authority which is shortly called as NALSA. If you see actually we had a similar question on that day as practice problems question like the question which is asked by UPSC in 2020 problems. Based on the information we discussed on that day through the method of elimination we can arrive at the correct answer to this question. We discussed about section 12 of Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987. It mentions the persons eligible for getting free legal services and in this list as we have discussed the criteria do not specify persons belonging to OBC and all senior citizens as eligible persons for free legal aid. So if you know this fact then that means options 3 and 4 should not be an answer and if eliminate the options in the given codes we can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option A 1 and 2 only. Now this next 10th question it deals with international agreements or arrangements and the subject matter which they are related to. Here the Alma Ata declaration is about health care for the people. We have discussed this declaration on our 6th January 2019 analysis. We have also discussed about Talanova dialogue which is related to climate change in our target problem series for the month of October 2019. So whoever watched the discussion could easily associate Talanova dialogue with climate change. In fact on that day we gave Talanova dialogue as a statement in relation to the question on Paris climate agreement and if you know that these two are correctly matched then you can arrive at the correct answer because one and three are present only in one option which is option C. Next let us take this 11th question in set A. It is about one of the features of parliamentary form of government. If you see the entire team of this question is in terms of collective responsibility removal of the government from office by passing a no confidence motion. These aspects we have already discussed on 21st September 2020 in the news analysis. So we can easily arrive at the correct answer option B which is the government is responsible to the parliament and can be removed by it. Now here note that in this context the term parliament effectively refers to Lok Sabha in the parliament in the Indian parliamentary system. Now this next question is also a polity question. Actually it is a repeated previous year prelims question. The question is on the ideal of welfare state. Actually UPSC asked the same question in civil services prelims 2015 examination. In fact in 2020 prelims examination UPSC has just shuffled the options which was given in 2015 as you can see here and we have discussed about this aspect on our 14 September 2019 Hindu News Analysis in the practice questions discussion session. At that time we discussed about this ideal of welfare state and why we say that this ideal is enshrined in direct to principles of state policy. Actually the article which deals with this aspect is article 38 which comes under DPSP and this article deals with state securing a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people. So from this we can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option A Directive Principles of State Policy. Now if you take this 13th question it is with reference to the basic structure and judicial review. Here the first statement mentions that the Constitution of India defines its basic structure. Now this statement is incorrect as we know that doctrine of basic structure is laid down by the Supreme Court through several judgments. The theory or the doctrine of basic structure was laid down in the case law of Keswan and the Bharti versus state of Kerala and it was not laid down by the Indian Constitution and we have discussed all these details in our 7th September 2020 in the news analysis. So easily we can say that the first statement is incorrect and therefore we can eliminate options A and C and by this we can increase our probability to arrive at the correct answer from 25% H to 50% H. Now if you take the second statement in this question it mentions that the Constitution of India provides for judicial review to safeguard the citizens liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Now judicial review refers to judiciary reviewing a law made by the legislature or reviewing the lawfulness of a government decision. On our 11th January 2020 in the news analysis we discussed a news article related to the suspension of telecom and internet services in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Now the decision of government to suspend the services was challenged at the Supreme Court under article 32 of Indian Constitution. So during analysis we made a statement that an individual can file a writ petition in the Supreme Court when they feel that their fundamental right has been violated. In such a case the Supreme Court as per article 32 or the High Court under article 226 of Indian Constitution will review the decision of the government to safeguard the fundamental rights. In other words citizens liberties and several times the higher courts have said that the judicial review is an integral part of the Constitution. In a case law of L Chandrakumar versus Union of India the Supreme Court has observed that the judicial review by high courts under article 226 is a part of the basic structure. So constitution does provide for judicial review for safeguarding citizens liberties. And on several days we have also discussed about the purpose of constitutional benches under article 145 clause 3 wherein also the power of judicial review is exercised. See here constitutional benches are those benches where a minimum of 5 Supreme Court judges sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution. This simply means that the validity of a law can be tested on the basis of whether it infringes upon any provision of the Constitution or not. And as per the Supreme Court power of judicial review of legislative as well as the executive actions makes the judiciary the final arbiter. Several constitutional benches have placed important ideals of the Constitution into the basic structure doctrine also. So yes, the Constitution provides for judicial review if not define or mention the term judicial review. So with this understanding we can say that the second statement is correct. Therefore the answer is option B to only to this question. Next let us take this 15th question in set A. This question asks which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy. We know that civil services in general is called as bureaucracy or bureaucratic machinery of the government. We discussed about higher bureaucracy on 11th August 2020 and then on 3rd September 2020 also we discussed about the mission Karm Yogi which is the new national architecture for civil services capacity building. On that day we made a statement that the capacity of civil services plays a vital role in rendering a wide variety of services implementing welfare programs and performing core governance functions. This statement was sourced from the Press Information Bureau that is PAB. So with the understanding of this statement we can arrive at the correct answer to this question which is option D. Now the 17th question in set A is about gold tranche or reserve tranche. During our analysis on 13th June 2020 we discussed about reserve tranche. We also gave a practice prelims question involving reserve tranche. We clearly said that the reserve tranche is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access at any time without agreeing to the conditions or without paying a service fee. In other words it is the portion of a member country's quota that can be withdrawn free of charge at its own discretion. And even before 13th June also we discussed the same aspects of reserve tranche in our daily news analysis on 6th December 2019 as well. And very recently on 19th September 2020 we again discussed about the reserve tranche position in the IMF. So by this we can easily or directly arrive at the correct answer which is option D a credit system granted by IMF to its members. Now this question is about part 4 of Indian constitution which is the directive principles of state policy. Here three statements are given. Now in our daily news analysis on 14th September 2019 we have talked about DPSP in the news article analysis and also in the practice questions discussion as part of practice prelims question. In the explanation we have clearly stated that part 4 deals with the directive principles of state policy as per article 37 they are not enforceable they are fundamental in governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. With this information we can easily say that the second and third statements are correct and therefore we arrive at the correct answer which is option D 2 and 3 only. The first statement of this question is about a non-member of first state legislature becoming a minister. In our Indian news analysis published for 18th and 19th of August 2019 we have talked about article 164 clause 4 by which a person who is not a member of state legislature can be appointed as a minister for any period of six constitutive months. And on the same day we have also discussed that Supreme Court has made an observation in the case law of B. R. Kapoor versus state of Tamil Nadu in 2001. In the analysis we said that as per the supreme court only a person who is eligible to contest can be appointed as a minister if sure he is a non-member to the state legislature. And in the supreme court verdict it was stated that necessarily the non-legislator must be one who when he is appointed is not debarred from obtaining membership of the legislature he must be one who is qualified to stand or contest for the legislature. So here it is mentioned as contest for the legislature. Eligibility to contest is different from eligible to vote. All persons who are eligible to vote are not eligible to contest for the state legislature. This is because the age criteria to vote is not less than 18 years but to get elected in state legislature it is a different age. In case of legislative assembly the age is not less than 25 years and then in the case of legislative council it is not less than 30 years of age. Now with this understanding the first statement becomes incorrect as it says a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he or she is not a member of the legislature of that state. So first statement becomes incorrect and you can eliminate options A and C. So this increases the probability of attempting this question correctly to 50 percentage. Now this question is based on article 85 of Indian constitution. We have discussed about this article on our 26th august 2020 Hindi news analysis and as per the explanation given on that day we can easily say that the second statement is incorrect and the first statement is correct. We have discussed the same aspects on two other days also like on 11th May 2020 and also on 14 September 2020. So by this we can eliminate options B and D and we can arrive at 50 percentage probability to attempt the correct answer. Now this 27th question is on Gandhi-Irwin pact. See even though it is a factual topic we discussed this particular topic in the context of Pune pact in our April 2020 target series when we discussed about the events related to freedom struggle. So in this question out of the four statements we have discussed statements 1, 2 and 4 that are related to the Gandhi-Irwin pact in the April 2020 target series. See the Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed on 8th March 1931 to suspend the civil disobedience movement and also to invite the Congress to participate in the second roundtable conference. So from this you can infer that statement one is correct. Then under this pact it was also agreed that the British government would withdraw all ordinances that were issued to curb the Congress during the civil disobedience movement. So from this you can infer that statement 2 is also correct. Then we also saw one another important thing in this pact that the British government would withdraw all prosecutions relating to offenses that did not involve violence and that would release such prisoners who were not charged with violence. So this makes the statement 4 as correct. So if you know all these three statements are correct you can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option B, 1, 2 and 4 only. Now this next question is question 40 in set A which is about blockchain technology. We have discussed in detail about the blockchain technology in our 21st July 2019 Hindi news analysis and in that we discussed statement 1 and 2 in detail. See blockchain is a public ledger that everyone can inspect but no single user controls. Blockchain's core is a public ledger which cannot be arbitrarily manipulated. Here the public ledger is nothing but the storage system. Every block in the blockchain is linked to a unique digital signature of the participants who are carrying out the transactions. Here blockchain aims to complete a secure transaction without the help of a central authority like bank in case of financial transactions. When a transaction is initiated it must be validated that is it must be checked as genuine by the peer-to-peer network. Here the peer is a computer system on the network. Now each peer is considered equal so there is no single user control. Hence statement 1 is correct which defines blockchain technology. And then on that day we also saw the application of blockchain technology and as you can see here the application is not just limited to cryptocurrencies only. But the question mentions it as the structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only. So this makes the statement as incorrect. So if you know statement 2 is incorrect you can eliminate options b and c and from the remaining options you have now 50 percentage probability of correctly answering this question. It mentions that applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's permission and on our 21st july 2019 news analysis we saw the challenges of blockchain technology and in that the first challenge which we saw was the blockchain technology is not yet fully established. But still it is in use so you can infer that statement 3 is correct which makes the correct answer to this question as option d 1 and 3. Next let us take this 42nd question from set a. This is a tricky question on the application of drones. Drones are often in news for different types of innovative applications and we have covered some of them. We covered about drones in our 19th december 2019 in the news analysis video and again in a detailed manner we covered drones on our 6th june 2020 in the news analysis video. Now on the 19 december analysis we discussed that drones can be used for spraying pesticides which in turn helps in controlling the locust menace. So from this you can easily say that option one should be an answer which is spraying pesticides on a crop field. Then we again covered about drones on our 16th September in the news analysis video that is very recently. On that day we saw that drones are being used in mapping of geographical features of the country and this includes creators of active volcanoes also so that means two should also be an answer. So if you know that one and two should be an answer then you have 50 percentage probability of correctly answering this question. Next if we take this 44th question it is based on gene editing technology. In this we have covered the statements one and two in our 4th and 10th june 2019 in the news analysis videos. On our 10th june 2019 video we talked about gene edited babies so from there we can infer that statement one is correct and then as you can see here we have discussed editing embryonic stem cells on 4th june 2019. So from this you can answer statement two and in this analysis we have also said that transgenic animals can be produced. Now here transgenic animals means an animal whose genome has been altered by the transfer of a gene or genes from another species or breed and this includes the gene from humans also. So from this statement you can also answer statement three of this 44th question which means that all the three statements are correct. Now if you take this question in set A it is related to foreign direct investments in India and the question asks for the major characteristic of FDI. We have discussed about FDI many times if you see our 18th march 2020 in the news analysis there we saw that a major merit of FDI is that it is non-debt creating as well as non-volatile that is it is less fluctuating. Now if you know that this is the major merit of FDI then you can easily arrive at the correct answer which option B it is a largely non-debt creating capital flow. Now if we take this 52nd question it is about international trade of India. We can attend this question based on elimination method. If you see on our 29th august 2020 in the news analysis we discussed about India's steel exports and imports where we saw that India's imports of raw steel and steel products has increased in the recent years but if you see statement 2 it mentions that India's imports of iron and steel have decreased in recent years so that means the statement is incorrect. If you know statement 2 is incorrect you can eliminate option A and B. Now from the remaining options you can say statement 3 is correct. India's exports of services are more than its imports of services. Now we have to know whether option C is correct or D is correct. If you see on our 14th December 2019 analysis we have discussed that India is having an overall deficit in trade. If you know this fact then you can say that statement 4 is correct and when we know statement 4 is correct we can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option D. Now this next question 63 it is based on the factors or policies affecting the price of rice. We discussed about these factors or policies which actually influence the price of rice on our 21st April 2019 in the news analysis. We discussed some of the factors like carryover stocks which are nothing but the leftover stocks from the previous year's production after meeting the demand then we talked about expected demand which is the average level of consumption and exports during the past few years then we discussed about imports and exports which are nothing but the trade and rice. Through imports and exports government thoroughly controls rice trade because it is a major food grain crop. So through this the price factor is largely controlled by the government so that means government trading should be in the answer that is two should be in answer then after that the factors which are influencing the price of rice also includes government policies. We saw that on that day see government policies includes any change in government policy relating to the crops such as minimum support price it is also a policy of the government and it determines the price of the rice. So that means MSP should also be in answer and then if you see option three in the question it states government's stockpiling. By this they mean that storage of the procured food grain. So this comes under the procurement factor which we discussed on that day. Government carries out direct procurement through government agencies and it stores in warehouses that primarily includes the warehouses of food corporation of India. So that means three should also be in answer. So if you know that one two and three should be in answer you can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option D. Next if we take this question number 65 in set A it is about the members of G20 grouping. If you remember we discussed about G20 in our 29th and 30th June 2019 Hindu News Analysis. See we know that there are many multilateral groupings around the world and it is very difficult to remember all the members and especially if the members are large in numbers and we also discussed many multilateral groupings often in our Hindu News Analysis. But on our 30th June of 2019 Hindu News Analysis we discussed about some of the members of G20 and especially we compared them with the members of BRICS. We saw during the question discussion on that day that all the BRICS members are members of G20. So that means South Africa is also a member of G20. If you know this fact then you can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option A. Because from B Malaysia and New Zealand are not members of G20. In C Iran and Vietnam are not members of G20. And then in option D Singapore and South Korea are not members of G20. Next let us take the 66th question in set A which is about Kisan credit card. We discussed about Kisan credit card in our 23rd June 2020 Hindu News Analysis and in that we discussed about the objectives of the scheme. The objective is to meet the short term credit requirements for cultivation of crops, post harvest expenses, produce marketing loan, consumption requirements of farm or household, working capital and then investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities like pumps, sprayers, dairy animals etc. So if you would have paid attention to all these objectives you can identify that statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct. Now the remaining are options 2 and 5. 2 is on purchase of combined harvesters, tractors and mini trucks which means farm machineries and then 5 is about construction of family house. And both these are not related to any short term assets. They are long term assets. So we can eliminate these statements and we can arrive at the correct answer which is option B, 1, 3 and 4. Now if we take this 67th question in set A it is related to consumer price index that is CPI and wholesale price index that is WPI. We have many times discussed about CPI and WPI in our Hindu News Analysis. Particularly if we take on 13th February 2020 we discussed about both CPI and WPI elaborately and in that we clearly saw that services sector is not covered under WPI so statement 2 is correct. And we also saw that RBI is using CPI combined as the sole inflation measure for setting inflation target and for ensuring price stability. So this makes statement 3 as incorrect because it mentions RBI is using WPI as a key measure of inflation. So since if you know statement 3 is incorrect you can eliminate options C and D. Now the confusion is between A and B but now you have 50% probability of attending this question correctly. On 13th February in the news analysis we saw that the food and beverages category under CPI has more than 50 percentage weightage and we also saw that in WPI manufactured products have highest weightage which is about 64 percentage and if you see in WPI food is included under the primary articles only and if you see primary articles is just 22.6 percentage of the total weightage. So we can say that food articles is obviously less than this 22 percentage which means weightage of food in WPI is lesser than that of CPI or we can say the weightage of food in consumer price index is higher than that of WPI which makes statement 1 as correct and you can easily evaluate the correct answer which is option A 1 and 2 only. Now this question is based on important reverse and we have covered about the Mekong river in our target problem series for the month of April 2020. We have discussed about Mekong river wherein we have clearly stated that the river empties into or flows into South China Sea. So with this information we can say that the first pair is incorrectly matched. If you know this you can eliminate options A and D and you have to only choose from the remaining two options. So from this your probability of correctly attending this question increases to 50 percentage. Next if we take this 72nd question related to Indian elephants we have discussed about Indian elephant on our 19th August 2020 in the news analysis and on that day we told that the oldest female leads the group. So from this you can say that the statement 1 in question 72 is correct and here the question asks for the correct statements. So you can eliminate options B and C. Now next if you consider the fourth statement in this question it talks about the state with the highest elephant population. On our 22nd July 2019 in the news analysis we saw that Karnataka has the maximum number of elephants in India followed by Assam and then thirdly comes Kerala. And on that day we also gave a similar statement in the practice prelims questions also. We gave a correct statement in our question which is the state of Karnataka has recorded the largest population of elephants in India. But in the prelims examination UPSC has given the incorrect statement saying that highest elephant population is in Kerala. So if you know that statement 4 is incorrect then you can arrive at the correct answer which is option A 1 and 2 only. Now this question is about protected areas located in Kaveri basin. On our 16th June 2020 in the news analysis we discussed in detail about river Kaveri. That day we mentioned that Kaveri basin lies in the states of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and in the Union Territory of Pulcheri. On the same day we also saw that river Kabini is an important tributary of river Kaveri. Now the question has mentioned about one of the protected areas which is Papikonda National Park. On 24th August 2019 in the news analysis we have discussed about this Papikonda National Park which is in Andhra Pradesh. We categorically stated that the unique feature of Papikonda National Park is that the river Godavari meanders through this national park. So just with this information and with the knowledge of Kaveri basin in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Pulcheri we can directly arrive at the correct answer which is option C 1 3 and 4 only. Because all the other options say Papikonda National Park is located in the Kaveri basin. Or else we have also talked about the Wynard Wildlife Sanctuary on our 15th May 2019 in the news analysis wherein we have mentioned that Kabini which is a tributary of river Kaveri flows through Wynard Wildlife Sanctuary. And then on 28 May 2020 in the news analysis in our practice questions discussion session we have given this practice question where we have mentioned that river Kabini forms the southern boundary of Nagarhole Tiger Reserve. And on the same day in the analysis we have also mentioned that the Nagarhole National Park or the protected area was declared as the 37th Tiger Reserve in India. So even if you do not know about the Papikonda National Park but if you know that Nagarhole National Park and Wynard Wildlife Sanctuary are located in Kaveri basin this increases your probability of attending this question correctly to 50 percentage. Now let's take this 79th question in set A. If you see this question it talks about coal fired power plants coal ash etc. We have covered aspects related to statement one and two on our 17th September 2019 in the news analysis. On that day we said that when the coal is burnt several gases and pollutants are emitted and these gases and pollutants include sulphur dioxide nitrogen oxides. So from this you can say that statement two is correct. So you can eliminate options A and C. Now from the remaining options you have to only determine whether statement one is correct or not. As part of the several gases and pollutants that are emitted when coal is burnt we saw that mercury and certain other heavy metals are also emitted. So if you know that mercury is also emitted you can say that this statement is correct and you can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option D one two and three. So that means even if you don't know that statement three is correct or not you can still arrive at the correct answer. Now this next question which is question 83 in set A it is a question regarding the concept of zero tillage in agriculture. We have elaborately explained the concept of happy cedar technology in our target 2020 august analysis where we discussed about the zero tillage concept. See a happy cedar is a unique machine that is used for sowing seed in the standing stubbles of crop residue and as we discussed in the target video this happy cedar machine consists of a rotor for managing the paddy residues and also a zero till drill for sowing of wheat and on that day we also discussed the advantages of happy cedar such as majority of the residue is not disturbed. We discussed about its eco-friendliness and then we also saw that rice stubble need not be burned. We also said that direct sowing also reduces soil disturbance it enables to retain more nutrients moisture and organic content in the soil. So with this we can say that statement one which is a sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of previous crop and this question is correct and then we as already saw it allows for direct sowing so we can say that statement two is also correct because it says that without the need for nursery or rice saplings direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible. So if you know that statement one and two are correct you have 50 percentage probability of correctly answering this question and here just note that adopting no tillage in agro ecosystems has been widely recommended as a means of enhancing the carbon sequestration in soils. So this makes statement three as a correct statement so the correct answer to this question is option D. Next if we take this 84th question it talks about the national policy on biofuels we have discussed this national policy on biofuels on our 19th October 2019 analysis where we discussed about a joint collaboration between Zomato and a biodiesel manufacturer for the production of biodiesel. In the discussion we have clearly mentioned that biofuels are fuels produced from renewable resources such as wastes and residues from agriculture and forestry then vegetable oil and other edible oils then the biodegradable fraction of industrial and municipal wastes etc. So if you know this fact you can eliminate grounded seeds and horse gram because they do not fit in the category of wastes and residues from agriculture and forestry neither they are vegetable oil or other non-edible oils. So if you know that grounded seeds should not be in answer you can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option A one two five and six only. Now let us take this 87th question in set A it is a description based question they have given the description of cotton crop. We have mainly discussed about cotton crop in our 17th April 2019 hindu news analysis and on that day we have mentioned that cotton requires light rainfall around 55 centimeters to 100 centimeters. We have also specifically mentioned that cotton requires 210 frost free days for its cultivation. So with this information you can easily arrive at the correct answer which is option A cotton. We have also discussed about the other crops mentioned in this question we have discussed about sugar cane on 3rd January 2020 in the news analysis and we have also discussed about tea on our 20th April 2019 in the news analysis and then on 13th August 2020 also and you can clearly see that all these discussions on these crops differ from that of cotton and that is why the correct answer is cotton. Now this next question is the 93rd question which is based on ocean mean temperature. This topic was in news in September 2018 at that time we have discussed this topic in our video on 3rd September 2018. Sometimes UPSC may go back even behind the period of one year in current affairs for important topics or areas like this ocean mean temperature topic. On our discussion that day we had a general discussion on this topic where we discussed about the 26 degree isotherm in that we have categorically stated that the ocean mean temperature data is collected during January March in a year and the prediction results will be available by April itself. So we can predict with 80 percentage probability whether this year's summer monsoon will be below average or above average. So with this information the second statement in the prelims question becomes correct and now we have arrived at the 50 percentage probability of correctly answering this question and here know that for our analysis at that time we sourced this information from the Hindu newspaper. We have also given here the link of the article which appeared in the science section of Hindu newspaper. It appears that this question is completely based on this particular article. At one point even in this news article it is mentioned as during January to March the mean 26 degree Celsius isotherm depth in the southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 meters. But in the prelims question UPSC has twisted this statement and gave us an incorrect statement. Now this 95th question is with reference to the desert national park and great Indian Buster. We have discussed about great Indian Buster on our 7th September 2019 in the news analysis. In the discussion we focused on fragmentation of the habitat of great Indian Buster and at one point we have specifically mentioned that the largest global population of great Indian Buster is found in Rajasthan. We have also said that it is the state bird of Rajasthan. There are between 100 to 125 birds in the desert national park in the districts of Jaisalmer and Barmer along with the agro-pastoral landscapes of Bikaner. From this we can say that the desert national park is spread across two districts of Jaisalmer and Barmer of Rajasthan. So with this information you can easily say that the first and third statements in the 95th question are correct and we have to choose the correct statements in this question. So the final answer should contain statements 1 and 3 and here only two options that is option C and D qualify this criteria. Therefore from this our probability of correctly attempting this question is increased to 50 percentage. Now this next question is question number 96 in set A which is based on Siachen Glacier. We have discussed about Siachen Glacier on our 22nd October 2019 Hindi news analysis very elaborately. During the analysis we have explained important locations like Saksham valley, Nubra valley, Aksai chain etc from which you can easily answer that the correct answer is option D north of Nubra valley. Siachen Glacier is situated to the north of Nubra valley. Finally we have come to the 100th question of prelims 2020. This question is about tiger reserves and the correct answer to this question is option C Nagarjuna Sagar Srisailam. We discussed about Nagarjuna Sagar Srisailam tiger reserve on our 28th July 2020 Hindi news analysis where we have explained that this tiger reserve is the largest tiger reserve in India. It spreads over several districts in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and this tiger reserve covers a total area of about 3500 square kilometer and it has a core area of more than 2500 square kilometers. So if you know this fact you can easily arrive at the correct answer to this question which is option C. With this we have come to the end of this session wherein we saw the questions reflected from Shankar IAS academy's daily Hindi news analysis in the UPSC civil service preliminary examination of 2020.