 Greetings aspirants, welcome to Shankar summary for UPSC problems 2023. This is the second video in the series. Like the previous video, in this video also we are going to take around 50 important current affairs topics from July 2020 to current affairs and we are going to discuss it in detail. The topics we are going to discuss today are displayed here. Now without wasting time, let's get into the discussion. Look at this question. This question is about rupee depreciation. Here four statements are given. We have to find which of these statements are the possible causes of rupee depreciation. Before we approach this question, let us understand first about rupee depreciation. See when the demand for any currency increases, then its value also increases. This is called as appreciation. Also when the demand for any currency decreases, then its value also decreases. This is called as depreciation. Now we will see what are the reasons for the depreciation of Indian rupee. The first reason is with respect to balance of trade. When foreign companies purchase any goods or services from India, they have to pay in Indian currency for which they have to first convert their currency into rupees. This increases the demand for rupee which in turn increases its values. So when we export more, our rupee appreciates. But when we import something like crude oil from overseas, we have to pay for it in dollars. In this case, we have to first convert rupees into dollars to make the payment. This leads to an increase in demand for the dollar. Hence the value of dollar increases against the Indian rupees. So when we import more than we export, rupee starts depreciating. Moving on, when foreign investors pull out of Indian market, they withdraw their funds in Indian currency. But they have to convert their withdrawing money into dollars. And for this, they purchase dollars in the forex market. As a result, the demand for dollar increases and the demand for rupee decreases. So when foreign investors pull their investments out of India, then rupee depreciates. So basically, activities that drain our forex reserves will eventually lead to rupee depreciation. Now we will approach the question. Let us take the first statement, decrease in foreign exchange reserves. Yes, this statement is correct. When foreign exchange reserve decreases, then there will be more demand for foreign currency and less demand for Indian rupee in our economy. And this leads to depreciation. So statement one is correct. It is a possible cause for rupee depreciation. Moving on to statement two, increase in trade deficit. A trade deficit occurs when a country imports more goods and services than its exports. To pay for these imports, the country needs more dollars. This increases the demand for dollar and decreases the demand for rupee. This results in rupee depreciation. So statement two is also correct and it is one of the possible cause of rupee depreciation. Moving on to statement three, increase in foreign direct investment. Foreign investment outflows will cause depreciation as we just saw in the discussion. So when there is a increase in FDI, rupee will not depreciate. So statement three is wrong. It is not a cause for rupee depreciation. Moving on to statement four, increase in crude oil prices. See when crude oil prices increases, we have to pay more for our crude oil imports. This places a strain on our forex reserve. And in our discussion we saw when the forex reserve is under strain, rupee will start depreciation. So statement four is also correct and it is one of the possible cause for rupee depreciation. So here statement one, statement two and statement four are possible causes for rupee depreciation. So the correct answer here is option K. Moving on to the next question. This question is about Alluri Sita Ramaraju. Before we approach this question, let us first see some points about this gentleman. See Alluri Sita Ramaraju was a revolutionary freedom fighter who dedicated his life for the welfare of the Adivasi community. He was born on 4th July 1897 in Andhra Pradesh. He became a Sannyasi at the age of 18. He raised his voice against the unlawful policies of the British government. He was deeply inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's non-cooperation movement and initially inspired the tribals to seek justice in the local panjayat courts and boycott the colonial British courts. This is the beginning of his involvement in the freedom struggle. And later British government passed the Medras Forest Act in 1882. This act banned the villagers from practicing their traditional agricultural system of shifting agriculture known as Puddu cultivation. It also forced them to raise particular type of crops. This act also laid severe curves on their movement in the forest area. So Alluri Sita Ramaraju initiated the famous Rampa Rebellion or Mannyam Rebellion in 1922 against the forest act in the Vishakhapatnam Godavari Agency area of the then Medras Presidency. He also encouraged the tribals to fight against the injustices of the British. He used the traditional weapons like bows and arrows and spears against the British guns. He also used Gorilla Warfare techniques effectively. Therefore he was called as the Mannyam Virdu or the hero of the jungle for his bravery. Now let us approach the question. Here four statements are given. We have to find which of the statement is associated with Alluri Sita Ramaraju. If you notice carefully option D that is he led the Rampa Rebellion against the British in the Medras Presidency is correct. So the correct answer here is option D. Moving on to the next question. See in this question four articles from Indian constitution are given. We have to find which of these articles does not deal with minorities in India. Let us take the first article. The first article given here is article 29. Article 29 deals with the protection of the interest of minorities. So any section of citizens residing in the territory of India having a distinct language script or culture of their own shall have the right to conserve the same. So article 29 is related to minorities. So it is not our answer. Moving on to the second option. Second option is article 30. Article 30 deals with the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. All minorities whether based on religion or language will have the right to establish and administer educational institution of their choice. So article 30 is also related to minorities and it is not our answer. Moving on to the third option. The third option is article 350b. Article 350b provides for the special officer for linguistic minorities. According to this article there shall be a special officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the president. It shall be the duty of this officer to investigate all matters related to the safeguards provided to linguistic minorities under the constitution. The special officer will have to report to the president upon the matters at such intervals as the president may direct. And the president shall play such reports before the houses of the parliament and the concerned state government. So article 350b also deals with minorities. Moving on to the fourth option. Fourth option is article 351. Article 351 deals with the directive for the development of Hindi language. So article 351 does not deal with minorities. So the correct answer for this question is option D. Moving on to the next question. Now look at this question here. This question is asking that which of these single use plastics were recently banned in India? See on July 1st 2022 the sale and use of some single use plastics were banned in India. Based on this government move only we framed this question. Now before answering the question let us see some points about single use plastics. According to the Indian government notification a single use plastic is defined as a plastic item intended to be used for some purpose before being disposed of or recycled. If we carefully look at the definition given by the government single use plastics not only defines the plastic items that are disposed of after single use but the plastic items that are put for recycling after single use also comes under the single use plastics category. We saw that on 1st July 2022 India banned the use and sale of single use plastics. Note that not all single use plastics are banned. Only some identified items were banned by the government. I have attached here the list of single use plastics that are banned by the Indian government. Just pause the video and go through it. Now who will implement the ban? At the central level the ban will be implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board. That is CPCB. At the state level the plan will be implemented by the State Pollution Control Board. That is SPCB. But the thing is that the SPCBs are required to update the status of ban with the CPCB regularly. If we look at the penalty the people who violate the ban would be penalized under the Environment Protection Act 1986. The Environment Protection Act 1986 provides for imprisonment of up to five years or a penalty of up to one lakh or both in case of violation of the plastic ban. Now coming back to the question. Which of the following single use plastics are recently banned in India? All these single use plastics that is knives made of plastics, plastic carry backs less than 120 micron thickness, trays made of plastics, wrapping or packing films around invitation cards, thermocoule for decoration are banned by the Indian government. So the correct answer here is option D1234 and 5. Once again I am insisting you just go through the list of banned single use plastic items that I have provided because there is a potential problems question there. Now let us conclude this question discussion and move on to the next question. Look at this question here. This question is about the jurisdiction of National Investigation Agency. Now before answering the question let us see some points about the National Investigation Agency. The National Investigation Agency is the counter-terrorism law enforcement agency in India. It is functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The National Investigation Agency was constituted under the National Investigation Agency Act 2008. So it is a statutory body. The National Investigation Agency was created in the backdrop of the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks. The National Investigation Agency is a central agency that investigates and prosecutes offenses which are affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India and the friendly relationship of India with foreign states. Then the cases involving atomic and nuclear facilities are also dealt by the NIA. Now coming to the jurisdiction of NIA. The jurisdiction of NIA extends to the whole of India. It even applies to Indian citizens residing outside the country. The jurisdiction also extends to people who are in service of the government wherever they are posted. Apart from this, the jurisdiction also extends to persons on ships and aircraft which are registered in India and wherever they are. In addition to this, the jurisdiction also covers persons who committed a scheduled offense outside India and the offense is committed against the Indian citizen or the offense is affecting the interest of India. Here you have to know that the scheduled offense that is stated here are the ones which are specified under the acts that is mentioned in the Schedule to the NIA Act. Now look at the table here. These are the acts provided under the schedule of the NIA Act. The offenses under each of these acts will be a scheduled offense. It covers a wide range of offenses like terror activities, human trafficking, counterfeit money, arms trafficking etc. The UPSC might ask a question like which of the following acts are mentioned in the NIA Schedule. At that time, you should be able to answer such question. So, my request is pass the video and kindly go through the acts mentioned here. There is a possible prerum's questions here. Now coming back to the question. Let me redo the question. The jurisdiction of National Investigation Agency applies to. Three statements are given. We have to find which of these statements are correct. See from our discussions we know that all the three statements that is persons on ships and aircraft registered in India, persons in service of government who are posted outside India, citizens of India who are residing outside country. All the three statements are the jurisdiction of National Investigation Agency. So, the correct answer here is option D, 1, 2 and 3. That's all regarding this question. Now moving on to the next question. Look at this question here. This question is about the National Family Health Survey 5. Before answering the question, let us see some points about the National Family Health Survey. The National Family Health Survey is a large scale multi round survey conducted by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has designated the International Institute for Population Sciences as the nodal agency for providing coordination and technical guidance for the survey. The International Institute for Population Sciences used to collaborate with a number of field organizations to conduct a survey. Each field organization is responsible for conducting survey activities in one or more states covered by the National Family Health Survey. The National Family Health Survey is conducted in a sample of households throughout India. The survey provides state and national level information on fertility, infant and child mortality, the practice of family planning, maternal and child health, reproductive health, nutrition, anemia, utilization and quality of health, and family planning services. The recent fifth round of National Family Health Survey was conducted between 2019 and 2021. Now we will see some of the data about the nutritional status of children under five years of age according to the National Family Health Survey 5. As we all know, malnutrition in children would cause serious impacts in their bodily development. Here the term malnutrition simply means inadequate nutrition or improper nutrition. The inadequate nutrition is due to inadequate consumption of nutrients, poor absorption of nutrients or excessive loss of nutrients. These factors result in under-nutrition condition in children like wasting, stunting, overweight and underweight. To have a better understanding about the terms that I have mentioned here, look at this image here. The term wasting means the child is having low weight for age and stunting means the child is having low height for age. Overweight means the child is having high weight for age and finally underweight means the child is having low weight for age. Now look at this another table here. This table provides us the comparison between National Family Health Survey 4 and National Family Health Survey 5 data. If we notice carefully, in National Family Health Survey 5, there is an increase in percentage of overweight and severe wasting of children under five years of age when compared to National Family Health Survey 4. Apart from these two indicators, the percentage in stunting, underweight and wasting have reduced to some extent. Now look at this question. Two statements about National Family Health Survey are given. We have to find the correct statements. Let us take up the first statement. When compared to National Family Health Survey 4, stunting in children under five years of age has been reduced in National Family Health Survey 5. This statement is correct. In National Family Health Survey 4, the percentage of stunting stood at 38.4 and National Family Health Survey 5, the percentage of stunting stood at 35.5. So, stunting in children under five years of age has been reduced in National Family Health Survey 5 when compared to National Family Health Survey 4. Moving on to the second statement. According to NFHS-5, obesity in children under five years of age has been reduced when compared to NFHS-4. This statement is incorrect. In NFHS-4, the percentage of obesity or overweight stood at 2.1 and in NFHS-5, the percentage stood at 3.4. So, obviously, obesity and overweight in children under age of 5 has increased in NFHS-5 when compared to NFHS-4. So, statement 2 is incorrect. So, the correct answer here is option A, 1-1-D. Now moving on to the next question. Our next question is about the Financial Services Institutions Bureau, that is FSIB. Four statements are given. We have to find the correct statement. To answer this question, you have to first know why FSIB was in use. See, on July 1, 2022, government made necessary amendment to the Nationalized Banks Management and Miscellaneous Permission Scheme of 1970 to establish FSIB as a single entity. The purpose of this amendment is to replace the autonomous body, that is the Banks Board Bureau, BBB. So, here the correct answer for this question is option D. But why was the amendment brought? The amendment was made based on the ruling by the Delhi High Court. In 2021, Delhi High Court declared BBB incompetent and struck down the powers of the Banks Board Bureau as they found something wrong with the selection process. After the verdict, the selection of top officials of public sector insurance companies were put on hold and the government started implementing the verdict by cancelling all appointments of the then-serving BBB selected directors. The new framework of replacing BBB with FSIB was proposed by the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance. Consequently, the Cabinet Appointments Committee passed a government resolution and based on this resolution only, FSIB was created. Before seeing about FSIB, we will first revise about BBB, that is Banks Board Bureau, because in last year's prelims examination, there was a question about Banks Board Bureau. See, the Banks Board Bureau has its genesis in the recommendations of the Committee to Review Governance of Boards of Bank in India 2014, which is also known as P.J. Nayak Committee. The government in 2016 approved the constitution of the BBB to make recommendation for an appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of public sector banks. It was a self-governing autonomous recommendation body. The Ministry of Finance takes the final decisions on the appointment in consultation with the Prime Minister's Office. BBB was a part of the seven-point strategy of Indra the News Mission aimed at revamping the public sector banks. It is a public entity as defined in the Right to Information Act 2005. The Nationalized Bank Management and Miscellaneous Provision Scheme 1980 provided the legal framework for the composition and function of BBB. Having seen the basics about BBB, now let us see some points about FSIB. FSIB is a government body set up under the Department of Financial Services. The FSIB will comprise a chairperson who will be nominated by the Central Government, the Secretaries of Departments of Financial Services and Public Enterprises, the Chairman of Insurance Regulator and Development Authority of India and the Deputy Governor of RBA. Additionally, it will have three part-type members who are experts in banking and three more who are experts in insurance sector. FSIB shall be a professional body with autonomy in its affairs and it shall have a own secretariat. The primary role of FSIB is to identify manpower capabilities and ensure proper selection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government. It is interested with making recommendation for the appointment of full-time directors and non-executive chairman of state-run financial service institutions. Such institutions include public sector banks, financial institutions and public sector insurance companies. The final decisions on the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the appointment committee of cabinet headed by the prime minister. Some of the other functions of FSIB is displayed here for your reference. You can go through it. So, before concluding this discussion, let me again say the answer for this question. The correct answer for this question is option D. The FSIB replaced BBB. Now, moving on to the next question. This is a three-statement question. Three statements about Project Guttuck is given. We have to find the correct statement. Let us take up the first statement. Project Guttuck was initiated as a successor to the 2009 Autonomous Unmanned Research Aircraft Programme, i.e. ARA Programme. Let us take up the second statement. Its objective is to develop a stealthy unmanned combat area vehicle, i.e. UCAV. See, both these statements are correct. Project Guttuck was initiated as a successor to the 2009 ARA program. Its objective is to develop a stealthy UCAV based on flying wind design. So, statement one and statement two are correct. Moving on to statement three, the demonstrator i.e. Swift UAV built under the program successfully completed its made-in test flight. See, this statement is also correct because last year there was a news about a technology demonstrator called Stealthwing Flying Testbed or Swift technology under India's UCAV program which completed its made-in test flight. So, here all the statements, i.e. statement one, statement two and statement three are correct. So, the correct answer here is option C1213. As a part of this question discussion, we will see some of the important facts about Swift UAV and we will also see some facts about Project Guttuck. First of all, what is this UCAV? UCAV is the short form of unmanned combat aerial vehicle. An unmanned combat aerial vehicle is also known as Combat Drone and it is basically a UAV. It is used for intelligence, surveillance, target acquisition and reconnaissance. The UCAV can also carry ordnance such as missiles and bombs. These drones are usually under a real-time human control with some varying levels of autonomy. The difference between a UCAV and a UAV is that UAV are used for both drone strikes and also for collecting intelligence. But UAV is only used for intelligence collection. Okay? See, in case of UCAV, there is no onboard human pilot. The operator runs the vehicle from a remote terminal. Hence, the equipment necessary for human pilot is not needed for UCAV. Due to this reason only, UCAV has low weight and small size. Moving forward, let us see some points about Swift UAV and Guttuck. Swift UAV is a scaled down version of Guttuck. So, let us see some points about Guttuck. Guttuck is an autonomous stealthy unmanned combat aerial vehicle. It is being developed by Aeronautical Development Establishment of DRDO for the Indian Air Force. Autonomous unmanned research aircraft was the tentative name which was given for the UCAV. The UCAV will be capable of releasing missiles, bombs and precision guided ammunition. In addition to this, it has stealth features to avoid detection by enemy sensors in contested airspace. Now, the main intent of Swift UAV is to demonstrate and prove stealth technology and high speed landing technology in autonomous mode. We have successfully completed the maiden test flight of this UAV, meaning if the Swift UAV goes into combat mode, then it will become Guttuck. This is why I said Swift UAV is a scaled down version of Guttuck. Swift UAV is powered by a turbofan engine. The engine is originally designed for cruise missiles. A small turbofan engine is also being developed indigenously. The UAV was designed and developed by Aeronautical Development Establishment, Bangalore, which is a premier laboratory of DRDO. So, this UAV flight marks a major milestone in terms of proving critical technology towards the development of future UAVs. Also, it is a significant step towards self-reliance in new defense technologies in India. So, that's all regarding this discussion. Once again, let me reiterate the answer for this question. The answer for this question is option C 1, 2, and 3. All the statements are correct. Moving on to the next question. Let me read out the question. The terms Qadi, Banja, Nalna and Jadur are associated with which of the following tribal community. The correct answer for this question is option A Orawan tribe. Qadi, Banja, Nalna and Jadur are some of the folk dances performed by the Orawan tribes. As a part of this question discussion, let us revise some facts about these tribes. The Orawan tribe is one of the most culturally vibrant tribe. Since Kuruk is the name of their mother tongue, they are also called as Kuruk tribe. This language is classified as an offshoot of the Dravidian language. See, in certain areas, the people of the Orawan community are called Dangar. Dangar means unmarried young men who used to work for wages. Moving forward, we will see some of the places where this community is located. The Orawan tribal community migrated from southern India to the Chotanapur plateau. Presently, they are located in border districts of Odisha, Bihar, West Bengal, Chattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh. Now comes the question. Is the Orawan tribal community placed under the PVTG? The answer is no. Since they are widespread, they do not come under PVTG. Now we will see the dresses and ornaments which the Orawan tribal community people use. They generally use their traditional dress. The male use, kariya and the females use, kandriya. Their primary occupation is settled agriculture and paddy is their principal crop. The agricultural activities are supplemented by secondary occupations such as wage earning, hunting, fishing and collection of minor forest produce. They are experts in rural arts and crafts like carpentry, tile and brick making and rope making. Women weave mats from date palm leaves and prepare broomsticks from wild grass. The religious beliefs and practices of Orawan tribe basically centers around animism. Their beloved supreme being is called Dharani, the earth goddess. Goddess Dharani and the sun god are worshipped in every religious ceremony. Each and every Orawan village has a sacred go called Sarna. In this Sarna, all their important grates are believed to reside. All the occasions are celebrated with communal dancing and singing. Their village priest is called Naiga, Kalo or Junker. Finally, one more thing that you have to know about the Orawan tribe is the Dumkuria. Dumkuria is the name of the youth dormantry of the Orawan tribe. Their primary role is to make community youth a perfect human being, particularly in matters of respect for others, discipline and self-control in tribe. These are some of the points about Orawan tribe. Now let us conclude this and take up the next question. Last year, the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways published the Road Accidents in India 2021 report. So this year we can expect a question about road accidents in the prelims examination. Now look at this question based on the Road Accidents in India 2021 report. Here four statements are given. We have to find which of the following statements are incorrect. Look at the first statement. The number of road accident cases in India has seen a steady increase for the past five years. This statement is incorrect. We can easily guess that this statement is incorrect. We know that our country was placed under strict lockdown in 2022. So obviously in 2022 there would have been a decline in accidents in India. So this makes statement one incorrect and it was also published in the Road Accidents in India 2021 report that in 2022 there was a dip in road accidents. So in essence, statement one is incorrect. Moving on to statement two, more road accidents occur in urban India compared to rural India. See on the face of it, it might appear that statement two is correct. But actually according to the published report of the Ministry of Road Transport and highways, more road accidents occur in rural India compared to urban India. So statement two is also incorrect. Moving on to the third statement, two wheeler riders were involved in the most number of road accidents. See this we can guess in India the number of vehicles that is the number of two wheelers are more compared to number of four wheelers. So obviously in accidents also two wheeler riders will be most involved. So statement three is correct. Two wheeler riders were involved in most number of road accidents. Moving on to statement four, driving under influence of drugs or alcohol is the major cause of road accident deaths in India. This statement is incorrect. According to the report it is not driving under the influence of alcohol but over speeding is the major reason for road accidents in India. See in this question they have asked us to find the incorrect statements. So statement one, statement two and statement four are incorrect here and the correct answer here is option C one two one four. Now moving on to the next question. See recently the Supreme Court of India directed the establishment of mandatory eco sensitive zone of minimum one kilometer measured from the demarcated boundary of every protected area. This news only prompted us to ask this question. Now look at this question. This is a four statement question. Four statements about the western guards ecology expert panel report is given. We have to find which of the four statements are correct. Look at the first statement. The panel designated the entire western guard region as a ecologically sensitive zone and divided it into ecologically sensitive zone one, two and three. See this statement is correct. The panel which is popularly known as Gadgil committee recommended the designation of entire western guards as a ecologically sensitive zone. The panel designated three levels of ecological sensitivity to different regions of western guards. These are termed as ecologically sensitive zone one, ecologically sensitive zone two and ecologically sensitive zone three. So statement one is correct. Moving on to the second statement. The panel recommended that no new large dams or mining operations should be started in the whole of western guards. See this statement is incorrect. Actually the Gadgil committee recommended that no new large dams should be established in ecologically sensitive zone one and not the whole of western guards. Likewise the panel or the Gadgil committee also recommended that no new environmental clearance will be given for mining in ecologically sensitive zone one and two and not the whole of eastern guards. Actually the statement says mining and dam construction is banned on whole of western guards which is wrong. So statement two is incorrect. Moving on to the third statement. The panel also recommended facing out all mining operation in the western guard. This statement is also incorrect. The panel recommended the facing out of mining in ecological sensitive zone one by 2016 but it allowed the continuation of existing mines in ecologically sensitive zone under strict regulation with effective system of social audit. This makes statement two incorrect. Moving on to the statement four. The government rejected the recommendation of the panel and appointed the Kasturi Rangan committee to re-examine the panel's report. This statement is correct. The union environment ministry appointed the panel headed by Mr K Kasturi Rangan in the year 2012 to re-examine the report submitted by the Gadgil commission. So from our discussion we know that statement one and statement four are correct here. So the correct answer here is option B one and four only. Now moving on to the next question. See the year 2022 marked the 225th anniversary of the coronation of Maharaja Sarfoji II. So this year we can expect a question about Maharaja Sarfoji II in our prelims examination. Before we try to solve this question we will see some facts about Sarfoji II. Sarfoji II became the Raja of Tanjavur on 30th June 1798. When Sarfoji came to power revenue and judicial systems were taken over by the East India Company and he was just a nominal head. Even though he was just a nominal head he devoted his life to the pursuit of culture. During his rule Tanjavur became a renewed center for learning. He established Saraswati Mahal which was endowed with manuscripts, printed books collected from all over the world. He also established the Danvantri Mahal where physicians of Aalopathy, Ayurveda, Unani and Siddha research in their system of medicine. He had the important herbs studied and cataloged in forms of exquisite hand paintings. King Sarfoji patronized music, dance and fine arts. He also started a school and gave free boarding and lodging facilities. He gave importance to Tamil education and to legible handwriting. He also opened up education to girls. He revolutionized education for female child by appointing women features. He constructed many water tanks and number of water wells for civic use. He implemented an underground drainage system for the whole of Tanjavur. His printing press in Devanagiri type established in 1805 AD was one of the largest and first of its kind in southern India. He also established a stone type press called Navavidya Kalanidhi Varanayatra sala. He also maintained veterinary hospital. King Sarfoji was greatly interested in science and technology. He had astronomical instruments for close study of the stars. He also made them accessible to students of educational institutions that he established. He built ships of various types and sizes to carry up shipping trade with Kolumbu, Jaffna, Lakshwadeep, Andaman, Kerala and Madras. These are some of the contributions made by Sarfoji too. With this understanding, now let us try to solve this question. He had three statements about Sarfoji too is given. We have to find the correct statement. Let us take up the first statement. He established the Danvantri Mahal library which was endowed with manuscripts and printed books collected from all over the world. See the library established by Sarfoji was not called Danvantri but it was called Saraswati. He established the Saraswati Mahal library. Moving on to the second statement, he established the Saraswati Mahal where physicians of Allopathy, Ayurveda, Yunani and Siddha researched their system of medicine. This statement is also wrong. He established the Danvantri Mahal. Danvantri Mahal is for research in medicine and Saraswati Mahal is a library. Both were established by Sarfoji too in Tanjavur. So statement one and statement two are incorrect. Moving on to the third statement, he gave importance to Marathi education. See this statement is also incorrect. From our discussion, we know that he gave importance to Tamil education. So basically statement one, statement two and statement three are wrong here and the correct answer for this question is option D Nannapthabhu. Now let us conclude this question and take up the next question. Look at this question. This question here is about the e-waste management rules 2022. We all know waste processing and waste disposal has become a major headache for a country like India. Recently also in the month of March, there was a fire in Kochi's Brahmapuram landfill. So there is a high chance of getting a question related to waste management in this year's problems examination. We already have two previous year questions regarding e-waste. One in 2013 and one in 2019. This is why I framed this question about e-waste management rules 2022. This here is a three statement question. Three statements about e-waste management rules 2022 is given. We have to find the incorrect statements. Let us take this first statement e-waste management rules 2022 is applicable only to producers, manufacturers and recyclers of e-waste. This statement is incorrect. In fact, these rules are applicable to every manufacturer producer, refurbisher, dismantler and recycler of e-waste. They all have different responsibilities as per the rules. It is their responsibility to ensure proper collection and recycling of e-waste. Here producers have to implement the extended producer responsibility target also. So statement one is incorrect. Moving on to statement two. Every manufacturer, producer and recycler should store the e-waste only for a period of 180 in all cases. This statement is also incorrect because as per the rules every manufacturer, producer, refurbisher and recycler may store the e-waste for a period not exceeding 180 days. But this period can be extended by the Central Pollution Control Board up to a period of 365 days. This is done in case the e-waste needs to be specifically stored for development of a process for its recycling or reuse. Moving on to statement three. e-waste management rules 2022 applies to e-waste or electrical and electronic equipments such as microwave oven, computers, telephones, battery waste, drills etc. See this statement is also incorrect. Schedule one of e-waste management rules 2022 contains list of materials and equipments to which the rules are applicable. But it does not include waste batteries. I will tell you why this is because waste batteries are covered under the battery waste management rules 2022. Apart from this, the rules are not applied for packaging plastics, micro enterprises that are defined under the MSME development act 2006 and radioactive waste. Know that packaging plastics are covered under the plastic waste management rules 2016 and radioactive waste are covered under the provisions of the Atomic Energy Act 1962 and rules made under the act. MSME is not included in this to aid its development and progress. So, the correct answer for this question is option D, 1, 2 and 3 only because the question asked for incorrect statement. Just a reminder, take note of all the points that we discussed now. It is very important for you to know the basic points regarding the rules. If possible, just give Schedule 1 a glance. This is about this question. Now moving on to the next question. This question is about the guidelines for prevention of misleading advertisements and endorsements of misleading advertisement 2022. This is a three statement question. Three statements are given. We have to find the correct statements. As far as UPSC is concerned, consumer rights or consumer protection is an important topic. Already there was a question regarding consumer rates in the year 2012. Now you may think what is the connection between consumer rights and guidelines for prevention of misleading advertisements? There is a connection. What is the purpose of the advertisement? To make consumers aware about the product, right? So, after seeing the advertisements only, consumers will go on by the product. If advertisements are misleading, then it is considered as a violation of the right to informed addition. This is why the guidelines are very important for people's perspective. Okay, now let us take up the question. Let us take the first statement and advertisement is considered not misleading if it presents the rights conferred to consumers by any law as a distinct feature of the advertisers offers. This statement is incorrect because already the right is given to the consumer by the law. So here the advertiser cannot claim that as a distinct feature of what he is offering. Such advertisements will be considered as misleading only. So statement one is incorrect. Moving on to statement two, bait advertisements should ensure that there is adequate supply of goods, products or services to meet foreseeable demand guaranteed by such advertisements. This statement is actually correct. Bait advertisements are nothing but advertisements that lure the customer to buy the product. These advertisements will be catchy and attractive. So while releasing such advertisements, advertisers should make sure that they have adequate supply of the products. So statement two is correct. Moving on to statement three, instead of direct advertisements, surrogate advertisements are allowed for goods and services which are prohibited or restricted by law. This statement is incorrect. If you know the meaning of the word surrogate advertisements, then you can easily find answer for this question. You can easily find this statement is incorrect. Actually, surrogate advertisements are also called as indirect advertisements or shadow advertisements. These advertisements advertise about the products which are prohibited by law. I know you will have the question. How can we do that? See advertisements will be about prohibited products only, but they will portray it as advertisement for products that are not prohibited by law. This is how surrogate advertisement got its name shadow advertisements. The prohibited products will be advertised under the shadow of products which are not prohibited. Example for this include indirectly advertising for alcohol, tobacco, ganja, etc. Know that even this surrogate advertisements are also prohibited under the guidelines for misleading advertisement rules 2022. So this means that if a particular product is prohibited by law, then surrogate advertisements about them is also prohibited. So the correct answer for this question is option B, 2 only. Statement 2 only is correct. Statement 1 and statement 3 are incorrect. See we have covered this topic in detail on our 7th July 2022 Hindu news analysis. There we discussed about the child targeted advertisements also. Also you can read the official document itself. It is a simple documents. There is only hardly 5 pages. It is also easy to understand. So if you find time, just go through the official document. So that's all regarding this question. Now moving on to the next question. The next question is about purchasing manager's index. I don't have to tell you the importance of indices in UPSC exam. Look at all these questions regarding indices which are asked in the year 2015, 16, 17 and 18. First of all, let us before answering the question about PMA. Let us see some facts about PMA. PMA or purchasing managers index is a survey based economic indicator designed to provide a timely insight into the business condition. The index is produced for more than 40 economies worldwide. See the index will be useful to know about the prevailing business conditions. PMA data are used by financial and corporate professionals to better understand where economies or markets are headed and it helps them to uncover new opportunities. See in simple words, it is used to provide information regarding the current and future business condition. It indicates the overall health of the economy and also provides insights into other key economic drivers such as GDP, inflation, exports, capacity utilization, employment and inventories. Know that it is compiled and produced globally by a company called IHS market. Here IHS market has become a part of S&P global that is standard and poor global through a merger. Finally coming to PMA calculation. PMA are calculated by surveys. These surveys ask the purchasing managers whether they think the business and industry conditions have improved, remained constant or deteriorated compared to the previous month. Know that it is a monthly survey. It is usually released at the start of the month. It is calculated separately for manufacturing and service sector and then a composite index is constructed. Know that PMA is a score from 0 to 100. Below 50 indicates contraction and above 50 indicates expansion and a score of exact 50 indicates no change in the economy. The rate of expansion and contraction can be judged by comparing the PMA score with the previous month. Now let us take the question from the information that we just saw. We can easily find that option C is incorrect because the question here asks about the statements that is not related to PMA. So the correct answer here is option C. Now let us conclude this question and take up the next question. Look at this question. This question is about India international bullion exchange. Four statements are given. We have to find which of these statements are the expected outcomes of India international bullion exchange. Before we try to answer this question, let us cover some basics. Firstly, what is a bullion? Bullion refers to physical gold or silver of high purity that is often kept in the form of bars, ingots or coins. So basically, a bullion exchange is a market through which buyers and sellers trade gold and silver. Now we will see about IABX. IABX is India's first international bullion spot exchange that has been set up in gift IFSC that is international financial services centers. It will allow qualified jewellers to import bullion and carry out transaction of the same on the exchange. Apart from qualified jewellers, non-resident Indians and institutions will also be able to participate on the exchange after registering with the IFSCA. So all the bullion imports for domestic consumption will be channelized through this exchange. Know that international financial services centers authority that is IFSCA is the regulator of IABX. Having seen the basics, now let us see the advantages of setting up a IABX. First is with the establishment of IABX, all the bullion imports into India can be channelized through it as I said earlier. Next, the IABX will help in price discovery process to occur organically. Here price discovery is nothing but the market price determined through interaction between sellers and buyers. Next one is quality. With all bullion imports into India channelized through the IABX, the quality of gold can be ensured. The major advantage in setting up IABX is ensuring source integrity. See, gold can be sourced or bought from a variety of places. When gold is sourced from a conflict area or if the gold is mined in a war zone and if the gold is sold to finance a conflict it is termed as blood gold. With IABX, the presence of blood gold in India can be prevented and the sourcing integrity can be ensured. Now coming back to the question. See, all the four statements are the expected outcomes and the advantages of setting up a IABX. So the correct answer for this question is option D 1, 2, 3 and 4. Now moving on to the next question. See, this is a pair based question. Four pairs are given. On one side we have Ramsar side and other side we have the states in which it is located. We have to find which of these pairs are incorrectly matched. Okay, before answering this question, let us quickly revise few important points about the topic. An international treaty called the Convention on Wetlands was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and it came into force in 1975. It is also called the Ramsar Convention. Basically, it provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and its resources. So a Ramsar site is a wetland site designated to be of international importance under the Ramsar Convention. Here you should also know about the Montrex record. Montrex record is a register of some wetland sites on the list of wetlands of international importance. On these particular sites, changes in ecological character have occurred or occurring or likely to occur as a result of technological development, pollution or other human interference. Know that it is maintained as a part of Ramsar list. Currently, two wetlands of India are in the Montrex record. One is Caledon National Park which is located in Rajasthan and the other one is Lokta Lake which is located in Manipur. Earlier, Chilka Lake of Odisha was also placed under the Montrex record but later it was removed. Now only two sites in India are placed in the Montrex record. India now is a land of 75 Ramsar sites. See this list here. India has the largest number of Ramsar sites in South Asia. In 2022 alone, 28 wetlands were designated as Ramsar sites. Based on the date of designation mentioned on Ramsar certificate, the number is 19 for this year and 14 for the previous year. Don't miss this topic. Try to remember the important wetlands and where it is located. There is a possible we can expect a prelims question from this area this year. Now coming back to the question. See, Karikilli bird sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu. So first pair is incorrect. Pallikarni marsh reserve forest is located in Tamil Nadu. So second pair is correct. Sahia saga is located in Madhya Pradesh. So third pair is incorrect. And Pala wetlands are located in Misoram. So fourth pair is also incorrect. As I said, this question they are asking the incorrectly matched pairs. So the correct answer here is option C three pairs. Okay. Now moving on to the next question. See this question is about HIV. Three statements about HIV is given. We have to find the correct statements before answering this question. Let us quickly brush up the basics of HIV. First of all, you should be clear about the terms HIV and AIDS. See HIV or human immunodeficiency virus is an infectious virus that affects the immune system. So what it will do is it will weaken the immune function to fight against invading diseases. However, AIDS that is acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is the final stage of HIV infection where patients will have pneumonia, fatigue, weight loss and other complications. Clear? Also know that there are three stages in HIV. First is the acute HIV. Then we have the chronic HIV or the clinical latency stage and the third one is AIDS. Basically HIV can be transmitted through semen, vaginal fluid during unprotected sex, blood or drug infusion through unsterilized needles or instruments and breast milk or mother to child infection during pregnancy. So how it is treated? It is basically treated using the anti-retroviral therapy. Basically anti-retroviral therapy is the treatment for HIV patients using anti-HIV drugs. It uses a combination of drugs that will suppress the HIV replication. These drugs are often called as highly active anti-retroviral therapy or HAART heart. So this treatment reduces the mortality and morbidity rates among the HIV infected people. So therefore the anti-retroviral therapy improves the quality of the people infected by HIV. It prevents even HIV transmission by suppressing HIV replication in persons living with the virus. Previously HIV could not be cured but so far three patients were cured of HIV through stem cell therapy. Remember this fact okay? Now we will solve the question. We know statement one is correct based on the discussion. Here statement two and statement three are also correct. HIV can be tested using blood and saliva and C-section delivery is a strategy to prevent transmission of HIV from mother to child. So the correct answer for this question is option D 1 2 1 3. Now moving on to the next question. Look at this question. It is a two statement question. Two statements are given. We have to find the correct answer. Before we approach this question, let us cover some basics. First let us take gross capital formation rate. Here the term capital is defined as the amount of money that is invested in the economy. Gross capital formation is basically the amount of investment made in an economy in relation to the total GDP of that economy. When gross capital formation is expressed in percentage form then it is called gross capital formation rate. The gross capital formation rate or the rate of capital formation is calculated by dividing the amount of investment with GDP and then multiplying it into 100. To put it simply gross capital formation rate gives us the picture about the amount of investment made out of the total GDP of the economy. Then there is another term called gross fixed capital formation rate. According to our budget, the term capital has a very wider definition. In general, capital includes not just productive capital investments like building roads, constructing factories, etc. But it also includes financial investment like central governments loan to state governments. So just by looking at the value of gross capital formation rate, we cannot determine the actual productive investment made in the economy. This is where gross fixed capital formation rate comes into picture. See the gross fixed capital formation rate is nothing but the ratio of fixed capital investment to GDP. Here fixed investment or fixed assets include only the physical assets like construction, machinery and roads. When gross fixed capital formation is expressed in percentage form then it is called as gross fixed capital formation rate. The gross fixed capital formation rate is calculated by dividing the amount of fixed investment with GDP and then multiplying it into 100. Then the last term that we are going to see is real gross fixed capital formation rate. See when we say gross fixed capital formation rate, this means gross fixed capital formation rate at current prices. Here the gross fixed capital formation rate does not account for inflation. So if gross fixed capital formation rate is adjusted to inflation then the term is real gross fixed capital formation. Know that real gross fixed capital formation rate is also known as gross fixed capital formation rate at constant price. Real gross fixed capital formation provides us the estimate about the actual productive investment made in our country. Now coming to the question. Take up the first statement gross capital formation is defined as the ratio of fixed investment to gross domestic product. See this statement is incorrect. This is the definition of gross fixed capital formation. Gross capital formation includes overall investment whereas gross fixed capital formation includes only fixed investment. So statement one is incorrect. Moving on to statement two. If gross fixed capital formation rate is adjusted to inflation then the term is nominal gross fixed capital formation rate. This statement is also incorrect. If gross fixed capital formation rate is adjusted for inflation then the term is real gross fixed capital formation rate at constant price. If we include inflation in gross fixed capital formation rate then only it is termed as nominal gross fixed capital formation rate. So statement two is incorrect. Since both the statements given here and incorrect the correct answer is option D neither one nor two. Moving on look at this question this question is about Kanwar Yatra. Now before answering this question let us see some points about Kanwar Yatra. The Kanwar Yatra is a pilgrimage organized in the Hindu calendar month of Sravana or Savan. In our regular calendar the pilgrimage falls between July or August. During this pilgrimage the devotees of Lord Shiva generally walk with pictures of holy water that are taken from Ganga or other holy rivers. Now that the water is taken from pilgrimage sites such as Haridwar, Gaumukh and Gangotri in Uttarakhand, Sultan Gaj in Pihar, Prayagraj, Ayodhya and Varanasi from Uttar Pradesh. The water collected from such pilgrimage site is used by the devotees to worship Shiva Lingas at some important shrines. The shrines include 12 Jyothilingas, certain specific temples such as Pura Mahadeva and Augarnath temple in Meerath, Kashi Vishnath temple in Varanasi and Baidyanath Dham in Diogad. And the temples in the devotees' own village or town are also included in the important list. Now what is the term Kanwar here means as I said earlier the devotees carry pictures of holy water on their shoulders where the pictures are balanced on a decorated sling known as Kanwar. So Kanwar is a small bamboo pole on which two earthen parts are hung on either end for carrying the holy Ganga water on the shoulders to offer to Lord Shiva. Now that the devotees of Lord Shiva who participate in this Yatra are known as Kanwar Yars. Now coming to the question. This is a three statement question. Three statement about Kanwar Yatra is given. We have to find the correct statements. Look at the first statement. It is an annual pilgrimage organized in the Hindu calendar month of Sravana. This statement is correct because we just saw in our discussion that Kanwar Yatra is organized during the Hindu calendar month of Sravana. Moving on to the second statement. The devotees of Lord Hanuman take part in this Yatra and they carry holy water from the river Ganga. While the second part of this statement is correct, the first part is incorrect. The devotees of Lord Shiva take part in this Yatra. So statement 2 is incorrect. Moving on to the third statement. The holy water collected during the Yatra is used to worship Sivalingas at shrines of importance. This statement is also correct. We saw about this in our discussion. So the correct answer for this question is option A 1 and 3 only. Moving on to the next question. This question is regarding bioluminescence. Now before answering this question, let us understand some points about bioluminescence. Bioluminescence is nothing but the protection of light by living organisms. We have seen fireflies when you are kids, right? The protection of light by fireflies is called bioluminescence. Apart from fireflies, various organisms like jellyfish, squid, deep sea fishes produce bioluminescence. In addition to this, some species of bacteria, fungi and algae also express the property of bioluminescence. Note one point here. The light produced due to bioluminescence is called cold light. Cold light emits bluish color and it generates very low or no thermal radiation or heat. For instant, the light produced by a candle is a hot light and it is yellowish in color. This is because the light has thermal radiations in it. Whereas in the case of bioluminescence, the bluish light is produced by a chemical reaction. So the thermal radiation or heat is negligible in bioluminescence. This is why it is also called cold light. See, the bioluminescence appeared in news because recently in coastal Chennai, the bioluminescence property was absorbed in Noctiluca scintillens. Here, Noctiluca scintillens is a dinofargetate which is an algae having the capacity of bioluminescence. So, we can probably expect a question regarding bioluminescence in our examination this year. So, this prompted us to ask this question. Now, coming to the question. It is a two statement question. Let us take up the first statement. Bioluminescence is a cold light emitted by living organisms through chemical reactions in their body. This statement is correct. We saw that bioluminescence is the cold bluish light produced by the living organisms through chemical reaction in our discussion. So, statement one is correct. Moving on to the second statement, only insects are known to have the property of bioluminescence. This statement is incorrect because we know that insects, jellyfish, squid, deep sea fishes, bacteria, fungi and algae express the property of bioluminescence. So, statement two is incorrect. So, the correct answer for this question is option A one only. Moving on to the next question. Look at this question. This question is about central zoo authority. Let us take up the first statement. It has the power to recognize and de-recognize zoos. This statement is correct. Moving on to the second statement. It approves animal exchanges between India and foreign zoos prior to obtaining the necessary clearances under the XM policy and sites permit. Both these statements are correct. So, the correct answer here is option C both one and two. As a part of this question discussion, let us cover some basic points about Central Zoo Authority. The Central Zoo Authority or CZA is responsible for taking care of the zoos in India. It is a companion member of WA-ZA or the World Association of Zoos and Aquariums. It was created to get Indian zoos to global standards. The CZA was constituted under a separate chapter 4A of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972. So, basically CZA is a statutory body. Moving on, let us see the major objectives of the authority. Its first objective is to implement and strengthen the national effort in conservation of the biodiversity of our country, particularly animals as per the National Zoo Policy 1988. Secondly, it should enforce minimum standards and norms for the zoos. Thirdly, it should enforce norms to control the growth of unplanned and ill-conceived zoos. Moving on, let us see the functions of this authority. Firstly, the authority should recognize every zoo in the country. Secondly, the authority should provide technical and financial assistance to the recognized zoos. Thirdly, it regulates the exchange of endangered animals that are listed under Schedule 1 and Schedule 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972. In addition to this, the authority should approve the exchange of animals between Indian and foreign zoos. It has to be done as per clearances under the XM policy and sites. Here I have listed some of the functions of the Central Zoo Authority. You can go through it. So, that's all regarding this discussion. Now, let us take up the next question. This question is about Bail. Four statements are given. We have to find the incorrect statements. Before we try to attempt this question, let us cover some basics about Bail. Bail is the temporary release from police custody. It is actually a conditional liberty granted to the accused. Why it is called as a conditional liberty? Because once a person is released on Bail, the particular person should cooperate with the police for further investigation process. This is why it is called as a conditional liberty granted to the accused. It is also a constitutional right under Article 21. But the matter of right to claim a Bail differs based on the offense. An accused can claim Bail as a matter of right if he is accused of committing a Bailable offense. On the other hand, a person accused of non-Bailable offense cannot claim Bail as a right. However, they are permitted to approach the court while they are being prosecuted. The decision to grant Bail to the accused in non-Bailable charges is up to the court's discretion. In case of Bailable offense, Bail is granted by the police or the district magistrate. And in case of non-Bailable offense, Bail is granted by the session's court or high court. Moving forward, let us see the types of Bail that is available in India. First one is the regular Bail. Regular Bail is frequently issued to an individual who has previously been arrested and detained by the police. The accused has the right to be freed from such confinement under Section 437 and Section 439 of the CRPC. The accused person may get a Bail from the police officer or a court of magistrate in case of Bailable offense. But in case of non-Bailable offense, the accused person has to file the application in the session's court or the high court. Moving on to the second type of Bail which is the Interim Bail. Interim Bail is issued for a short period. Interim Bail is granted to an accused before the hearing for regular or anticipatory Bail starts. This is primarily because furnishing documents from lower court to higher court takes time. However, Interim Bail is concluded during the Bail hearing. The third one is the anticipatory Bail. Section 438 of the CRPC deals with anticipatory Bail. If a person thinks he will be arrested in a criminal case or any person can file an FIR against him, that person can submit the application in the court for anticipatory Bail. So, a Bail under Section 438 may be Bail before arrest and an individual cannot be arrested by the police if the court has granted anticipatory Bail. However, the person has to be present at the time of the proceedings of the case. The application must be made to the high court or session's court where the crime is alleged to be committed. The last one is the statutory Bail. It is also known as default Bail. This Bail is distinct from the Bail obtained from the procedures such as Section 437, 438 and 439 of CRPC. As the name implies, statutory Bail or default Bail is given when the police or investigation agency fails to file a report or complaint within a given timeframe. These are the types of Bail available in India. Now, with this understanding, let us try to answer the question. Look at the first statement. Bail is a conditional liberty granted to the accused. We know that this statement is correct. This we saw in the discussion itself. Moving on to the second statement, a person accused of non-Bailable offence can be granted Bail. See, this statement is also correct. This also we saw in the discussion. In case of Bailable offence, Bail can be claimed as a right. And in case of non-Bailable offence, a person can approach and get Bail, but he must approach the courts, either the session's court or the high court, and get the Bail granted. So, statement 2 is correct. Moving on to the third statement, only respective high courts can be approached for anticipatory Bail. See, in our anticipatory Bail discussion, we saw that either the session's court or high court can be approached to get anticipatory Bail. So, statement 3 is wrong. Moving on to the fourth statement, right to Bail is a constitutional right. See, this statement is also correct. Right to Bail is a constitutional right under article 21. Since they are asking for the incorrect statements here, the correct answer here is option D, 3 only. Moving on to the next question, which of the following organization releases the World Population Prospects Report? See, the correct answer for this question is option D, United Nation Department for Economic and Social Affairs. See, this is important because on July 11, which is observed as the World Population Day, the United Nation Department for Economic and Social Affairs releases the World Population Prospects Report. Last year's World Population Prospects Report is of high importance because this report projected that India will surpass China and became the world's populous country by the year 2023. So, we can expect a question about World Population Prospects Report 2022 in our problems examination. So, as a part of discussion, we will see some of the important observations that is made in the report. Firstly, the report states that world's population will continue to grow, but the pace of growth is slowing down. The population is expected to grow to 8.5 billion in 2030, 9.7 billion in 2050, and 10.4 billion in 2100. In 2020, the global population growth rate fell under 1% per year for the first time since 1950. So, basically the population will continue to grow, but the rate of growth will decline. Secondly, more than half of the projected increase in global population up to 2050 will be concentrated in just 8 countries and India is one among the 8 countries. I have displayed the 8 countries here. You can go through it. Thirdly, the report stated that population of elderly is increasing. The share of global population aged 65 years or above is projected to raise from 10% in 2020 to 16% in 2050. The report also said that there is a sustained drop in fertility. Finally, the report stated that the only factor driving population growth in high-income countries will be migration. These are some observations made in the world population prospects report 2022. Now, we will see some of the India-specific observations made in the report. See, India's population growth rate stood at 2.3% in 1972, but right now it has dropped below 1%. In this period, the number of children each Indian woman has during her lifetime has come down from 5.4 to less than 2.1. This means India has attained the replacement fertility rate at which the population exactly replaces itself from one generation to the next. Secondly, with increased access to health care and advances in medicine, the mortality rate are also declining in India. This reduction of premature mortality for successive generation reflected in increased level of life expectancy at birth in our country. This has been the main driver for population growth in India and due to this only, India is projected to surpass China as world's most populous country in the year 2023. Finally, the report said that population of 0 to 14 years and 15 to 24 years will continue to decline while those in the 25 to 64 and 65 plus category will continue to raise in India in the coming decades. So steps must be taken to properly utilize the demographic dividend. These are some of the observations made in the World Population Prospects Report 2022. I am reiterating again just go through the important observation made in the report and also see the basics about who publishes the report and other factors related to the report because we can expect a question regarding this report in our examination. Okay, now let us conclude this and take up the next question. Take a look at this question. This question is from the medieval history. Let me read out the question with reference to medieval history, polaj, paruti, chachar, and banjar refer to which of the following. Four options are given. We have to find the correct option. See, we all know this area is important when it comes to UPSC problems. Let me show you some previous year questions. The questions from 2015 are about barber's arrival and the feudal system. The question from 2016 are about economic history of medieval India and the taxation system of Vajnagar empire. The questions from 2019 are about zamindar and jagithar and the administration system of Delhi sultanate. Now, coming back to the question. This question here is about the administration during Akbar period. The correct answer for this question is option A classification of land. Now, let us see some facts about the administration during Akbar's period. First, let us see about the provincial administration. Akbar divided his vast empire into 15 subas or provinces. In each suba or province, there was a subedar, a divan, a bakshi, a saddar, a quasi, a kotwal, a mirbar, and a vakinivas. The provinces were further divided into sarkars and sarkars into praganas. The head of the sarkar was a fujdhar. The head of the praganas was called sikdhar. Each pragana comprised several villages. Each village was under the charge of a muktam, a patwari, a chaukidar who carried on the work of administration with the help of the village panchayat. Now, moving on to the military administration. For efficient military administration, Akbar introduced a new system known as the man sabdari system. The man sabdars had to maintain soldiers according to their grade or rank. They were paid salaries in cash. They were directly under the charge of the emperor. Mughal army consisted of infantry, cavalry, artillery, elephants, and navy. Moving on to land revenue administration. Firstly, the land was measured into pigas. Secondly, all the cultivated land were classified into four divisions. The divisions being polaj, paruti, chachar, and banjan. Thirdly, the total produce of each land was determined separately. Fourthly, the share of the state was fixed to one third of the total produce. Moving on, let us see about the social reforms brought about by Akbar. The pilgrim tax was abolished, which was a great burden on the Hindus. Then in 1564, jazia, a tax which was imposed on non-Muslims was also abolished. Akbar tried to stop the practice of sati. Then child marriage was discouraged and female infanticide was forbidden. He also encouraged widow marriage. Now, let us talk about religion under Akbar's rule. Akbar was not an extreme Muslim. Rather, he was known for his tolerance towards all religion. He made many religious matrimonial alliances through which he sent a message of unity and togetherness. Akbar propounded the principle of dinilahi. It is through this that he spread the theory of all religion are same. That's all regarding this discussion. If you want to know more about Akbar's period, I suggest you to watch our 10th July 2022 Hindu news analysis. Now, moving on to the next question. Look at this question. First, let me read out the question. This piece is a small arboreal mammal found in the forests of India, Nepal, Bhutan, and the northern mountains of Myanmar and southern China. It is the state animal of Sikkim. It is listed as an endangered species under the IUCN Red List. This piece was selected for argumentation into wild habitat at Singhalila National Park. See, the correct answer for this question is option C, Red Panda. See, I think UPSC is very interested in the biodiversity of India. Time and again, there has been questions about different flora and fauna species of India. I have framed this question because this species that is Red Panda was selected for argumentation into wild habitat at Singhalila National Park. Events like this are very important. Now, look at this question which was asked in the year 2017. This was about the proposal to translocate lions from Gujarat. Now, you know why I said it is important. See here, argumentation is the release of captive-born wild animals into areas in which the species still occurs, but only in low numbers. Red Panda's numbers were declining and this is why Red Panda argumentation program was carried out by the Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park, which is located in Darjeeling. This is the only specialized zoo in the country and is internationally recognized for its conservation breeding program of snow leopard, Red Panda and other highly endangered species of eastern Himalayas. I know that this is not the first time such argumentation is happening. Already in 2003 and 2004, Red Pandas were released into the wide at the Singhalila National Park. This is about the program. Now, let us see some facts about Red Panda. See, there are two species of Panda. One is the Jain Panda and the other one is the Red Panda. As the name suggests, they are red in color. They are small, arboreal mammals found in the forest of India, Nepal, Bhutan and northern mountains of Myanmar and southern China. It thrives best in the mixed deciduous and coniferous forest with dense understories of bamboo. This is about its habit. India is home to the Himalayan Red Panda and the Chinese Red Panda. Like we saw in the question, it is the state animal of Sikkim. The other details, such as the physical features, diet, threats are discussed extensively on our July 10, 2022, Indonesia analysis. Interest aspirants can look at the video. Okay, now with this, let us conclude this discussion and take up the next question. Look at this question. First, let me read out the question. Implementation, completion and results report is released by which of the following. See, these kinds of questions are also important for UPC exam along with index-based questions. Look at the previous year questions from 2015, 16 and 19. Now, coming back to the question. The correct answer for this question is option C World Bank. Now, let us see some facts about the implementation, completion and results report. ICRs are an integral part of World Bank's drive to increase development effectiveness. Increasing the effectiveness of development is done through continuous process of self-evaluation, lesson learning and application. This is where the report helps. The lessons learned from ICRs improve the quality and effectiveness of the bank's loan and credit. It also helps in improving the effectiveness of follow-on operation. It is possible because borrower or stakeholder participation in the ICR enhances the latest design preparation and implementation of the development program. Two types of ICR is there. One is core ICR and the other one is intensive learning ICRs. The core ICR is prepared to satisfy the accountability needs and provide lessons from completed operation. Intensive learning ICRs provide more extensive analysis and lesson learning based on the findings of the stakeholder workshop or the beneficiary survey. So, basically this report analyzes the loans of World Bank. It is like a self-evaluation report and based on the findings of the report, World Bank will increase the effectiveness of their developmental efforts. That is all you need to know about this report. Now, moving on to the next question. Look at this question here. The question asks the Lux Zeppelin experiment is related to which of the following. Now, before answering this question, let us learn some points about the Lux Zeppelin experiment. Lux Zeppelin experiment or LZ experiment is a next generation dark matter detection experiment. The experiment is being conducted by the U.S. Department of Energy. The main objective of this experiment is to detect dark matter particles present in the universe. For the experiment, the Lux Zeppelin dark matter detector has been installed in the Sanford underground research facility. This facility is located in U.S. state of South Dakota. Lux Zeppelin experiment is being done in collaboration with 35 institutions in the U.S., U.K., Portugal and Korea. Now, coming to the question. From our discussion, we know that the correct answer for this question is option C, a next generation dark matter detection experiment by the U.S. Department of Energy. Now, since I mentioned the word dark matter, let us understand about this dark matter. Dark matter is the mysterious matter that fills the universe, but no one has ever seen that. This is because dark matter is completely invisible. It emits no light or energy, so it cannot be detected by conventional sensors and detectors. Everything we see, that is the planets, moons and massive galaxies, make up less than 5% of our universe. Remaining 95% consist of dark matter and dark energy. Of this 95%, 27% is dark matter and 68% is this dark energy. While dark matter attracts and holds the galaxies together, dark energy ripples and causes the expansion of our universe. The particles are called dark because they do not emit light and the particles are called matter because they possess mass like normal matter and hence they interact with other matter through gravity. Now, what makes up this dark matter? Most dark matter is thought to be non-barionic. If we take non-barionic matter, it is any sort of matter that is not composed primarily of baryons, that is subatomic particles like protons and neutrons. So, as of now, most dark matter is thought to be made up of non-barionic matter. With these points in mind, now let us conclude this question discussion and take up the next question. Look at this question here. This question is about nebula. Three statements are given. We have to find the correct statements. Before we answer this question, let us learn some points about nebula. First of all, nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas that exist in space. The gases in the nebula mostly consist of hydrogen and helium, whereas the dust consists of fine cosmic dust which include samples from comets and asteroids. Now, how is this nebula formed? The nebula is formed when a dying star explodes. The event of luminous explosion of the star is termed as a supernova. During the explosion of the star, the gases and dust from the stars are thrown out. These gases and dust form the nebula. The nebula is a region where new stars begin to form. This means that nebula acts as a birthplace of star. Now, let us see how nebula acts as a birthplace of stars. As we just saw, nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space. The dust and gases in the nebula are spread out over a vast region. Day by day, the dust and gases are slowly pulled together by gravity. So, when they come closer, they become clumps of dust and gases which looks like a cloud. As the clumps get bigger and bigger, their gravity also gets stronger and stronger. Finally, the clumps get so big and it collapses due to its own gravity. This collapse causes the material at the center of the cloud to heat up, which in turn makes a hot core. From this hot core only, the stars begin to form. This is how nebula is acting as a birthplace of stars. Nebula exists in the interstellar space. Here, the term interstellar means the space between two stars. Note one fact here, the closest known nebula to earth is the helix nebula. Now, there is another term which we talked about while we are discussing about nebula. The term is the cosmic cliff. Cosmic cliff is the edge or the wall of the star-forming region in nebula. This particular region in the nebula consists of hot ionized gases and hot dust that are formed due to high radiation. Now, how does this cosmic cliff help in star formation? The edge of the star-forming region slowly moves into the nebula and it pushes into the gas and the dust present in the nebula. So, if the edge encounters any unstable material, it causes a disturbance and leads to increased pressure. This will trigger the unstable material to collapse and form new stars. This is how cosmic cliffs help in star formation. Recently, a cosmic cliff of the Karina Nebula has been pictured by the James Webb Space Telescope. This cosmic cliff is present in the young star-forming region of the Karina Nebula and this region is called NGC3324. NGC3324 is located at the northwestern corner of the Karina Nebula and it is roughly 7600 light years away from the earth. Karina Nebula resides in the constellation Karina. It is one of the largest and the brightest nebula. So, in this year's UPSC prelims, if there is a question which asks us what is NGC3324, you must be able to recall and write that NGC3324 is the young star-forming region in Karina Nebula. Now, coming back to the question. Let us take up the first statement here. Nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas that exist in the interstellar space. From our discussion, we know that this statement is correct. Moving on to the second statement. Nebula is formed in the space due to luminous explosion of stars. This is also correct. When stars explode, we call it supernova and this supernova leads to the formation of nebula. So, statement 2 is correct. Moving on to the third statement. The edge or wall of the star-forming region is called a cosmic cliff. This is also correct. Since all the statements are correct, the correct answer for this question is option D1213. Moving on to the next question. This is a map-based question. Four pilgrimage sites are given. We have to arrange them from east to west direction. Before we arrange the sites, we will see some facts about these five pilgrimage regions. Okay, first let us take Amarnath. The Amarnath cave temple is located in Jammu and Kashmir. This temple is famous for the cave shrine of Lord Shiva. The cave is situated at the altitude of about 3888 meters above mean sea level. The cave is located about 100 kilometers from Sheenagar. The other pilgrimage sites are Kedarnath, Gangodari, Badrinathan, Yamunathri and all these sites are located in the state of Uttarakhand. These four sites are collectively called as Chardham of Uttarakhand or Chottachardham. The Yamunathri temple is situated close to the source of river Yamuna and it is dedicated to the Goddess Yamuna. Then the Gangodari temple is dedicated to Goddess Ganga and the Kedarnath temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva. And finally, Badrinath which is home to Badrinathan temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. Now we will try to arrange the pilgrimage sites. Look at these two maps. In the first map you can find the Amarnath cave temple. Since Amarnath cave temple is located in Jammu and Kashmir, we can safely assume that it is the western most among the five given sites. Okay? Now coming to the second map which shows the Chardham sites in Uttarakhand. From the map we know that Yamunathri is the western most. Then we have Gangodari. Then there is Kedarnath and finally there is Badrinath. See in the question they are asking us to arrange these five sites from east to west. So the eastern most among the given sites is Badrinath. Then the second eastern most is Kedarnath. Then there is Gangodari, then Yamunathri and finally Amarnath. So the correct answer for this question is option C 4 2 3 5 1. Okay? Now let us conclude this and take up the next question. Look at this question. This question is about the green wall of India. Before we approach the question, let us cover some basic points about the green wall of India. The green wall of India is a massive afforestation project aimed at increasing the country's forest cover and combating desertification. The project was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in collaboration with various state governments, NGOs and private organizations. The project's aim is to plant trees along a 1400 km stretch of land from Gujarat to Delhi-Haryana border. This stretch is part of the Aravalli Range, which is prone to desertification and soil erosion. The project aims to plant around 220 crore trees in this region which would increase the forest cover in the area and also help in preventing soil erosion. The project covers the states of Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Delhi, where the Aravalli hill landscape spans over 6 million hectares of land. It involves planting a mixture of native trees, fruit trees and medicinal plants. See, this project was inspired from the Great Green Wall Initiative which was launched in 2007 by the African Union. The African Great Green Wall Initiative aims to restore the continent's degraded landscape and transform millions of life in the Sahil region. Now coming back to the question from our discussion, we know that the correct answer for this question is option A along the Aravalli hill range. Now, moving on to the next question. This question is about the Bharat NCAP rating. Four statements are given. We have to find which of the statement is correct. Before answering the question, let us understand about what is this Bharat NCAP rating. Bharat NCAP is nothing but Bharat New Car Assessment Program. It is an initiative of the Indian government to improve the safety of cars on Indian roads. It is a car safety assessment program that tests and rates the safety of vehicles sold in India. The program is modeled after the NCAP programs of developed countries like U.S., Europe and Japan. Under Bharat NCAP, cars are crash tested at different speeds and the results are used to rate the safety of the car. The program evaluates the vehicle's crash worthiness and occupant protection and assign a rating based on the test results. The rating ranges from 0 to 5 star with 5 being the highest rating. The Bharat NCAP has also made it mandatory for all new cars to have certain safety features such as front airbags, seat safety belt reminders and anti-lock braking system that is ABS. The Bharat NCAP test will be applicable on passenger vehicles with seating capacity up to 8 passengers besides the driver. The vehicles to be tested should be manufactured or imported in India and should not exceed a gross weight of 3.5 tons. Here, it is important to note that Bharat NCAP is a voluntary program which means the auto makers are not required to participate in the program. Overall, Bharat NCAP aims to promote road safety in India by encouraging the use of safe cars and raising awareness about vehicle safety among the consumers. Now coming back to the question, from our discussion, we know that the correct answer for this question is Option C. To promote road safety by testing and rating the safety of vehicles in India. Okay, now moving on to the next question. This is a three statement question. Three statement about national green tribunal is given. We have to find the incorrect statements. Okay, before we approach the question, let us revise about the national green tribunal. The national green tribunal is a specialized judicial body in India that was established in October 18, 2010 under the national green tribunal at 2010. The national green tribunal was set up to deal with cases related to environmental protection, conservation of forest and other natural resources and enforcement of any legal right related to the environment. So if a person is seeking relief for environmental damage involving subjects in the legislations mentioned in schedule one of NGT Act 2010, then he or she may approach the tribunal. The legislations included in schedule one are displayed here. You can go through it. Here you have to know that the tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial question relating to environment. Additionally, if any person is aggrieved by any order or direction of an appellate authority under the legislation in schedule one, then that aggrieved person can challenge the orders before the NGT. Also know that the tribunal is headed by the chair person. The members include at least 10 but not more than 20 judicial members and at least 10 but not more than 20 expert members. So the members include both judicial and environmental experts. Then you should know that the decisions of the tribunal are binding. The tribunal's orders are enforceable as the powers vested on them are same as that of the civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure 9008. Besides this, the tribunal has power to review its own decision. Also the decision of the tribunal can be challenged before the Supreme Court within 90 days. Now, coming back to the question. Let me read the first statement. The tribunal has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving a substantial question relating to environment. From a discussion, we know that this statement is correct. Now moving on to the second statement. Aggravity parties need not engage and advocate to approach the tribunal. See, this statement is also correct. Engaging and advocate is not necessary. Aggravity parties may approach the tribunal in person by submitting an application in the request form. So statement 2 is also correct. Moving on to the third statement. The decisions of the tribunal are final and binding. This statement is incorrect. The decisions of the tribunal can be challenged before the Supreme Court within 90 days. So the decision of the National Green Tribunal is not final. You can appeal before the Supreme Court. So statement 3 is incorrect. Since they have asked for the incorrect statements here, the correct answer here is option C3 only. Now moving on to the next question. Look at the next question. This question is about the foreign currency non-resident account that is the FCNR account. See, UPSC has not asked any question related to accounts and all. But it has asked question about foreign currencies. For example, look at this question which was asked in 2013. It was about 4x resource. And the next question which was asked in 2021 is about foreign direct investments. So now you get what I am trying to say. In some way or other, questions about foreign currencies has been asked in UPSC. So it is very important for us to know about this FCNR account. We will try to solve this question and side by side we will learn about the FCNR account. Let us take up the first statement. It is a savings account for non-resident Indians in foreign currency in India. This statement is incorrect because it is not a savings account. Okay? So statement 1 is incorrect. Moving on to the second statement. FCNR account deposits can be placed in U.S. dollars, euros, Chinese renonbi, Japanese yen and British pound sterling. See presently FCNR account can be placed in six currencies namely U.S. dollar, pound sterling, Japanese yen, euro, Australian dollar and Canadian dollar. So Chinese renonbi is not in the list. So statement 2 is also incorrect. Moving on to the third statement. The interest earned from FCNR accounts are tax-free in India. See this statement is correct. Since the question asks for the correct answer here the correct answer for this question is option C 3 only. So as a part of this discussion we will see some other points about FCNR account. FCNR accounts are an excellent investment option for NRAs if they wish to retain their money in foreign currency. By creating this account they can earn good returns also. This is because in FCNR accounts the money will be held in foreign denomination. So this will prevent the risk of exchange rate fluctuations. Here you have to know that NRAs can freely repatriate both the interest earnings and the principal abroad. Here repatriate means NRAs can freely send money back to their country in which they are residing. Also you have to know that these accounts can be opened for a period between one year and five years. In case of premature withdrawals one has to pay penalty in terms of reduction in the interest rate. However in case the deposits under FCNR are liquidated before the completion of one year no interest is payable. That's all you have to know about FCNR account. Just remember all the points we discussed. Okay. Now moving on to the next question. Look at this question here. We have to find what is project 75? Four options are given. Let me read out the options. Project to commemorate 75 years of Indian independence. Project that envisages building six scorpion class submarines. Brick solar project worth 75 million US dollars in China. Projects that formulate strategies for New India at 75. See they all seem correct right? But the correct answer here is option B. It is a project that envisages building six scorpion class attack submarines. First what is this scorpion class submarine? Scorpion class submarines are one of the most advanced conventional submarines in the world. These submarines has superior stealth facilities such as advanced acoustic silencing techniques low radiated noise levels and ability to attack with precision guidance weapons on board. The Indian Navy intends to use these submarines for missions like area surveillance, intelligence gathering, anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare and mind-laying operations. Also know that these submarines are armed with six torpedo launching tubes, 18 heavy weapons, tube launched MBDA, SM-34, anti-ship missiles and precision guided weapons. It can launch crippling attacks on surface and underwater enemy targets. However, these attack submarines can travel at a maximum submerged speed of approximately 20 knots and have the ability to remain submerged for 21 days. It has a diving depth of more than 350 meters. The Scorpene-class submarines were designed by French naval shipbuilding firm DCNS in partnership with Spanish shipbuilding firm Navantia. Now coming back to Project 75. The first submarine under this project was commissioned into the Navy in December 2017. At present, the Navy has four submarines from this project INS Calvary, INS Kanderi, INS Karanj and INS Vela. The fifth INS Vagil which was launched in November 2020 was commissioned in December 2022. And the sixth is INS Vaxir. That is all you have to know about Project 75. Now let me explain the importance of such topics in UPSC. Look at this previous year question asked in 2018. It is about the American anti-missile system. So there is a chance that UPSC will ask about Project 75 also. So take notes of it. Now let's move on to the next question. This question here is about windfall tax. To answer this question, we should first know what is this windfall tax. I will tell you what it is and you tell me the correct answer for this question. A windfall tax is a tax levied by government against certain industries when economic conditions allow those industries to experience above average profits. Windfall taxes are primarily levied on companies in the targeted industries that have benefited the most from economic windfall. Know that these profits are taxed separately over and about the normal taxes that these companies pay to the governments. It is most often levied on commodity-based businesses. Know that in India, in July 2022, windfall taxes have been levied on oil refineries. This is because of the Russia-Ukrain War. Crude oil prices skyrocketed due to the war and India's oil companies record more than normal profits due to this. Now look at the options given here. The best suited answer here is option B. Windfall tax has nothing to do with disaster aid, windmill parts or loss of the company. Okay. I frame this question because these types of questions are also important for UPC problems examination. I have evidence for that as well. Look at these previous year questions from the year 2011, 2014 and 2018. These were questions about GST. So revise the basics about taxes and at the same time know about the terms related to taxes. Okay. Now moving on to the next question. Look at this question. This question is about the extra green diesel. Four statements are given. We have to find the incorrect statement. Before we approach this question, let us see some points about extra green diesel. Extra green diesel is a specialized fuel that was introduced by Indian Oil Corporation. It uses a modified DMFA, which is nothing but diesel multifunctional additive to lower emissions and improve vehicles fuel efficiency. Because of this feature, they are carbon neutral and considered as a carbon-free alternative to fossil fuels. They are seen as crucial to decarbonize heavy industries in the future. I am saying this because this modified DMFA improves fuel efficiency by 5 to 6 percent, reduces carbon dioxide emission, reduces carbon monoxide emission, and it also reduces nitrous oxides emission. Apart from this, extra green diesel has higher CTA number compared to conventional diesel. The higher the CTA number, the more easily diesel fuel can be ignited. The extra green diesel has increased CTA number by 5 points, which will result in reduced engine noise and excellent corrosion protection. Due to these specific features, extra green diesel is in sync with our Prime Minister's commitment to steer India towards a greener tomorrow. The only downside of this extra green diesel is that it is costlier than conventional diesel. Okay, now let us take up the question. See, from our discussion, we know that option A, option B, and option C are correct. The only thing incorrect here is option D. It is cheaper than regular diesel. Actually, extra green diesel is costlier than regular diesel. Okay, now moving on to the next question. Look at this question. Here, three projects are given. We have to find which of these projects are associated with the river Godavari. Before we address this question, let us see some points about the river Godavari. The Godavari River, also known as Dakshin Ganga, is the largest peninsula river system in India. It flows for a distance of approximately 1465 km from its source in Trimbakeshwar, near Nasi Kin, Maharashtra, before joining the Bay of Bengal. The Godavari River is surrounded by Sita Mala Hills on the north, Ajanta Range and Meghado Hills on the south, the eastern gods on the east, and the western gods on the west. This basin extends over several states, including Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa, as well as smaller parts of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and the Union Territory of Puducherry. The Godavari River system has many tributaries that originate from various parts of the basin. Some of the major tributaries include Pravara, Purna, Manjara, Penganga, Varda, Venganga, Pranheeta, Indravathi, Manneer and Sabari. Here, Pravara, Manjari and Manneer are right bank tributaries while Purna, Pranheeta, Indravathi and Sabari are important left bank tributaries. The Godavari River is not only a source of water for irrigation and drinking purposes, it is also a source of hydropower. Many dams and irrigation projects have been constructed on the river and its tributaries. Some of the famous one includes the Srinamsagar project, Pallavaram project and the Godavari Krishna link canal project. Okay, now let us take up the question. See here, the Idiqui hydroelectric power plant is located in Periyar river in Kerala and the Sri Salem hydroelectric power plant is located on the river Krishna in Andhra Pradesh. So, here only Pallavaram project is associated with Godavari river. So, the correct answer here is option A only. Okay, now moving on to the next question. Let me read out the question. Which of the following tribes is associated with Medaram Jattara festival? Four tribes are given here. We have to find the tribe that is associated with the Medaram Jattara festival. Before answering the question, let us quickly go through some basic points about this topic. See the Medaram Jattara is the second largest fair of India after the Kumbh Mela. It is celebrated by the second largest tribal community of Thalingana that is the Koya tribe for four days. It is a tribal festival honoring the fight of a mother and daughter Samakka and Saralama with the reigning ruler against an unjust law. It is celebrated in the state of Thalingana. Now, let me use this opportunity to quickly take you through some of the information about the Koya tribe. The Koya tribe is one of the largest Adivasi tribe of Thalingana and it is listed as a scheduled tribe in Thalingana. The community is spread over Thalungu speaking states of Thalingana and Andhra Pradesh. The Koyas are mainly inhibiting the hilly areas of West Godavari, East Godavari, Kaman and Varangal districts. The Koyas are mainly settled cultivators. They grow Jovar, Ragi, Bajra and other millets. The Koya speak the Koya language which is a Trevidian language. Koyas perform a robust colorful dance called the Premakok Atta which is also called bison horn dance during festivals and marriage ceremonies. Collection of roots, fruits, leaves, tubers, herbs, etc. from the nearby forest constitute one of the important livelihood activities of the Koya tribes and it supplements their food and income. Also know that Koya's observe mainly four annual religious festivals namely Bijapandu, Kottapandu, Sikutpandu and Markapandu. Okay, now coming back to the question the Medharam Jattara festival is related to the Koya tribe. So the correct answer here is Option A. Moving on to the next question it is a two statement question. Two statements about the IT rules 2021 is given. We have to find the incorrect statements. Before we approach this question let us see about the IT rules 2021. The information technology rules 2021 broadly deals with social media and over the top that is the OTT platforms. First we will see some provisions related to the social media intermediaries. The social media intermediaries have been characterized into two groups social media intermediaries and significant social media intermediaries based on their number of users. Then to ensure the safety and dignity of the users intermediaries have to appoint a grievance officer to handle complaints. The officer should acknowledge the complaint within 24 hours and solve it within 15 days. For significant social media intermediaries they need to appoint a chief compliance officer a nodal contact person and a resident grievance officer who all should be resident of India. They are required to publish a monthly compliance report mentioning the details of complaints received and actions taken on them. Then if a significant social media intermediary provides messaging services they must enable the identification of the first originator of information for certain purposes. Also it is essential for the intermediaries to follow due diligence okay. If not safe harbor provision will not be applied to them. Here safe harbor provision protects the intermediaries from legal prosecution for any content that is posted on their platform okay. This is about the social media intermediaries in the IT rules 2021. Now we will see the provisions related to the OTT platforms. OTT platforms have to classify their content into five age based categories. The categories being U, UA7+, UA13+, UA16+, and A. Platforms will also be required to implement parental logs for the contents classified as UA13+, or higher. And reliable age verification mechanisms for content classified as A must be made. They must display the classification rating specific to each content or program along with the content descriptor informing the user about the nature of the content. This will enable users to make a informed decision before watching the program. Now read the question. See from our discussion we know that both the statements given here are incorrect. The first statement is incorrect because there are five categories and not six okay. The second statement is incorrect because the parental log mechanism is for UA13+, not UA16+, and above. Okay, since both the statements are incorrect here and since the question is asking us to find the incorrect statement, the correct answer here is option C, both 1 and 2. Okay, now moving on to the next question. Look at this question. In this question, four subsidies are given. We have to find which of these four subsidies falls under the amber box subsidy of WTO. Before we approach the question, let us see some points about the agreement on agriculture. Agreement on agriculture is a world trade organization treaty. Its main goal is to get rid of the so-called trade distorting agricultural subsidies. Under this, subsidies are characterized by boxes with colors like green, amber and blue. Green box subsidies have minimal impact on production and trade and are supported by the government, but they do not include price assistance. Examples of green box subsidies include environmental and conservation initiatives, research funds, inspection programs and disaster relief. These subsidies must not disturb trade and must be unrelated to current production levels and pricing. There is no limit on government for giving this kind of subsidies to their farmers. Now moving on to amber box subsidies. Amber box subsidies on the other hand are considered to be trade distorting and are subjected to restrictions and discipline. The WTO requires signatories to reduce trade distorting domestic subsidies that fall into the amber box. Example of amber box subsidies include direct payment to farmers, input subsidies and price support mechanisms like MSP. It is capped at 5% of total agricultural protection for developed countries and at 10% for developing countries. Now coming to the last box that is the blue box subsidies. Blue box subsidies are an exception to the general rule of production related subsidies. These subsidies are also called as production limiting subsidies. They include payments that are directly proportional to the acreage or the number of animals and are not subjected to the trade restrictions. There is no cap on these subsidies. Okay? Now coming back to the question. From our discussion we know that option two and three are amber box subsidies and they distort trade and here one and four are not directly related to production. So they fall under the green box subsidies. So the correct answer for this question is option B. Now moving on to the next question. This is a two statement question. Two statements about the global gender gap report is given. We have to find the incorrect statements. Before we address this question let us understand about the global gender gap index. The global gender gap index is a measure of progress towards gender equality in different countries which is released by the World Economic Forum. It looks at four key dimensions economic participation and opportunity educational attainment health and survival and political improvement. On each of these sub indices scores are provided between zero and one with one indicating full gender parity and zero indicating complete imparity. When we look at India's performance on the four key dimensions we can see that it ranks quite poorly in most categories. In terms of political empowerment India ranks 48th out of 146 countries. But its score is quite low at 0.267. This means that even though India ranks relatively high in terms of percentage of women in parliament and ministerial positions there is still a long way to go towards achieving true gender parity in political participation. On the other hand India's performance in economic participation and opportunity is quite poor with India ranking 143 out of 146 countries. India's score has improved slightly over 2021 but it still lacks behind global average. Similarly India's educational attainment ranking is 107th out of 146 with a marginally worsening score since last year. Finally when it comes to health and survival India ranks last among all the countries with a score that is not improved since last year. Now coming back to the question from our discussion we know that the first statement is correct. The global gender gap index or gender gap report is released by the world economic forum. So statement one is correct. Coming to statement two from our discussion we know that one indicates full gender parity and zero indicates complete imparity. So statement two is incorrect. Since they are asking for the incorrect statements here the correct answer here is option B two only. Moving on to the next question. Incheon strategy recently seen in news is associated with which of the following. See Incheon strategy is a set of disability inclusive development goals. The Incheon strategy will enable Asia and the Pacific region to track progress towards improving the quality of life and fulfillment of rights of people with disability. Know that India is party to the Incheon strategy for Asia Pacific decade for persons with disability 2013-2022. Okay. So the correct answer for this question is option A. Now we will use this opportunity to learn some facts about the persons with disability. Article 41 of the DPSP states that the state shall make effective provision for securing the right to work to education and to public assistance in case of employment, old age, sickness and disability. Then the subject of relief of the disabled and unemployed is specified in the state list of the seventh schedule of the constitution. Apart from this, the rights of persons with disabilities act 2016 was passed and it recognizes 21 categories of disabilities. Then the new list of recognized disabilities include three blood disorders that is thalassemia, hemophilia and sickle cell disease. And know that acid attack survivors have also been included in the list. Then intellectually disabled, Parkinson's disease, cerebral plasee, dwarfism and autistic spectrum disorders also find place in the list. This inclusion will help more people to have access to the government schemes and facilities intended for welfare of the disabled people in India. The right to people with disabilities act 2016 also provides for creating institutional framework to support the needs of people with disabilities. Setting up a special course in each districts has been mandated. These course will handle the cases related to violation of rights of disabled people. In addition, state governments will set up district level committees and separate state fund for the welfare of people with disability. Similarly, a national level fund will also be set up. For children with disabilities ages 6 to 18, education will be completely free. In addition to eliminate discrimination, punishment by imprisonment has also been mandated for those who intentionally insult or intimidate with an intent to humiliate a person with disability in any place within a public view. So these are some points related to persons with disability in the constitutional and the legislative framework of India. Now moving on to the next question. Now look at this question here. On one side tradition is given and on the other side the corresponding state is given. We have to find which of the pair is correct. I have framed this question because in the year 2018 a similar structured question was asked. So we have to be prepared for questions like this. Right? Now let us take the question. The first pair says that Bunalu Festival is a tradition of Arunathal Pradesh. This is incorrect because Bunalu is a Hindu festival in which Goddess Mahakali is worshipped. It is celebrated in Kamaradi district and the twin cities of Hyderabad and Saginabad and other parts of Telangana state in India. Bunalu is celebrated usually during Asthamasam that falls in July or August. This festival is considered as a form of thanksgiving to the Goddess after the fulfillment of those. Bonam is offered to Mother Goddess. Here bonam literally means meal in Telugu. In addition to this bonam they also offer bangles and saris to the Mother Goddess. Now moving on to the second pair Siyang Unying Festival is a tradition of Telangana. This is also incorrect. Actually the answers for the first two pairs are interchanged. So that makes Siyang Unying a festival of Arunathal Pradesh. See this festival is celebrated to mark the season of cultivation. Apart from this, it also marks the beginning of Adi communities new year, arrival of spring season and the strength and bond among the Adi community. It is also known as the Unying Arun. During this festival it is customary for all male members of the family to go on a hunting spree and stay in the jungle for one week. After one week they will return home with various kills such as deers, birds, squirrels, fish etc. The hunted birds, rodents, squirrels are prepared as gift or almond for children and the festivity brings brotherhood among the villagers as hunted meat and rice beer are shared among everyone. Now moving on to the third pair. The third festival that is Bumchu festival is a tradition of Sikkim. So the third pair is correctly matched. Bumchu festival is celebrated at the Tashi Ding Monastery which is in the western Sikkim region. It is celebrated on the 15th day of the first month of the lunar calendar which corresponds to February or March. The opening of the vessel containing the holy water is the major highlight of the festival. The level of water in this vessel is believed to be a sign of fortune for the coming year. Each year the vessel is open to verify the level of water in it. If the water level is higher or lower then it signifies ill fortunes such as droughts, disease and natural calamities. After the vessel is opened the monks take 7 cups of water from it and after mixing it with water from the Ratongchou river they will distribute it among the devotees. To fill the vessel again 7 cups of water are taken from the Ratongchou and put it in the vase and sealed until next year. Devotees from all over Sikkim as well as neighboring countries like Bhutan, Nepal etc. come to take part in the vehicle. This is all about Bhamchou festival. So the correct answer for this question is option C3 only. Moving on to the next question. This question here is about INS Sindhudvach. See so far UPSC has not directly asked any questions about submarines but in the year 2016 there was a question like this. It was about INS Ashraddharani. So being prepared for such questions is not a bad thing I have framed this question because in the month of July 2022 INS Sindhudvach was decommissioned after 35 years of service. This is why I framed this question. Now we will see some points about INS Sindhudvach and you are only going to answer the question. INS Sindhudvach was one of the 10 kilo class submarine India acquired from Russia between 1986 and 2000. The submarine depicts a gray colored nurse shock. It has several firsts to its credits. It includes the operationalization of the indigenized sonar, the indigenized satellite communication system, marine system stimulator, inertial navigation system and indigenized torpedo fire control system. It was commissioned into the navy in June 1987. Also know that it was a Sindhugosh class of submarine of Indian Navy. This is because Sindhugosh class submarines are the kilo class diesel electric submarines. Kilo is just the name given for the class of diesel electric attack submarines originally designed and built in the Soviet Union in the 1970s. Now coming back it is the only submarine that was awarded the CNS rolling trophy for innovation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. But it was decommissioned after 35 years of service. The traditional ceremony was conducted at Vishakhapatnam. So that's all. From the points we discussed what is incorrect statement about INS Sindhudavach that is given yes it is option B. See in this option the first half is correct and the second half is only wrong. It was commissioned into the navy in 1987 not in 1990. So that's all regarding the question. Now moving on to the next question. Have a look at this question. This question is about the application of quantum computing. See I have framed this question because UPSC has time and again asked questions regarding new technologies. I have given here examples from different time period. First question is from the year 2011. It is about Bluetooth and Wi-Fi. And the next question is from 2016. It is about Wi-Fi. And the most recent one is from 2022. It is about qubits. With this understanding about the importance of the question let us solve the question. See the correct answer for this question is option C 1 2 3 4 and 5. Now let us see some facts about quantum computing. Quantum computing uses a combination of bits to perform specific computational tasks. See all these are at a much higher efficiency than their classical counterparts. The quantum computer gains much of its processing power through the ability of bits to be in multiple states at one time. They can perform tasks using combination of ones, zeros and both one and zero simultaneously. This image here will help you understand the difference between quantum computing and classical computing. Some of the applications of quantum computing includes aerospace engineering, numerical weather protection, simulation, securing the communications and financial transaction, cyber security, advanced manufacturing, health, agriculture and education. Now before moving on to the next question you should also know about the mission for quantum computing. It is the national mission on quantum technologies and applications. The government in its 2020 budget has announced this mission. The government had also announced a total budget outlay of rupees eight thousand crore for a period of five years. This is to be implemented by the department of science and technology. This is to be implemented by the department of science and technology. So that's all regarding this question. Now moving on to the next question. This question is about one Mahotsav. Before answering this question let us learn some points about one Mahotsav. One Mahotsav literally means forest festival. It is an annual tree planting festival celebrated for one week between 1st and 7th July every year. During this festival thousands of trees are planted all over the country. On the occasion of this festival the state governments and the civic body supply saplings to schools, colleges, NGOs and welfare organization for planting trees. Now why is this festival celebrated? In India one Mahotsav is celebrated every year to create awareness about forest conservation and protection of forest. So, one Mahotsav acts as a remainder that we must protect forest and we have to stop deforestation. This tree planting festival started back in 1947 when it was first organized by a Punjabi botanist M.S. Randhawa from July 20 to 27. Then in the year 1950 the tree planting festival was declared as a national activity by the Minister of Food and Agriculture Mr. K. M. Munshi. Later on the festival was moved to the 1st of July and it was renamed as one Mahotsav in the same year. As we saw earlier the main objective of celebrating one Mahotsav is to encourage people to plant more and more trees. This is because trees are beneficial to us in many ways. Trees contributes to the production of food resources. They maintain ecological balance, improve air quality, conserve water, prevent soil erosion, supports wildlife, reduce droughts and prevent pollution. So, one Mahotsav is an important festival to protect our forest and trees. Now coming to the question. Two statements are given. We have to find which of the following statements are correct in regards to one Mahotsav. See, the first statement is incorrect. It is not an international day of forest. Rather, it is an annual tree planting festival observed in the first week of July every year in India. So, the first statement is incorrect. The second statement is actually correct. During this event state governments and civic bodies apply sapling to school, colleges and NGOs for planting trees. So, the correct answer here is option B2 only. Moving on to the next question. Let me read out the question. He was an advocate of Advaita philosophy and introduced Panchayatana form of worship. He wrote the famous Brahma Sutra Bhashya which is a commentary on Brahma Sutra. This statement represents which of the following persons given below. The correct answer for this question is option C Adi Shankaracharya. Now moving on to the next question. Look at this question. In this question on one side reports are given and on other side the organization that publishes it are given. We have to find which of these pairs are correctly matched. Let us take up the first pair. The India Innovation Index is released by Nithya Yog and the Institute of Competitiveness. So, first pair is correctly matched. The report is released every year. The index is calculated by assessing seven pillars. These seven pillars in the indexes are classified into five enabler pillars and two performance pillars. The enabler pillars measures the input that helps in the innovation process. The performance pillars measures the output of innovation. Each pillar here will have a set of indicators. In the latest index a total of 50 indicators are monitored based on these 50 indicators only ranks of the states are added. This is about the India Innovation Index. Moving on to the second pair. This pair is also correct. The Nithya Yog releases the State Health Index titled Healthy States Progressive India. It ranks the states and union territories on their year-on-year incremental performance in health outcomes as well as their overall status. Okay. Moving on to the third pair. The third pair is also correct. The Ease of Living Index is an annual report published by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to evaluate the quality of life in the city. Okay. Moving on to the fourth pair. See fourth pair is also correct. The All India House Price Index is a quarterly report which is released by the central bank. It is based on transaction level obtained from the housing registration authorities in 10 major cities in the country. The cities are Ahamadabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Delhi, Jaipur, Kanpur, Kuchi, Kulkata, Lucknow and Mumbai. Okay. Since all the given pairs are correctly matched the correct answer here is option D all four pairs. Now let us take up the last question for today's discussion. It is a two statement question asking us to find the incorrect statements. Two statements about right to travel abroad is given. We have to find the incorrect statements here. Look at the first statement. While Article 19 of Indian Constitution guarantees the right to move freely throughout the India's territory there is no such right to travel abroad. See this statement is incorrect. The right to move freely throughout the territory of India is guaranteed under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution. This is correct. But there is no such right to travel abroad. This statement is wrong because the SC that is the Supreme Court has observed that right to travel abroad is a fundamental right under various judgments like the Satvan Singh Swane was D Ramarathinam Assistant Passport Officer 1967 case. Menaka Gandhi was Union of India 1978 case. Satish Chandra Verma was Union of India 2019 case and Parvesh Noor Din was State of Maharashtra 2020 case. In all these cases the Supreme Court set yet right to travel abroad is a fundamental right. So statement one is wrong. Moving on to the second statement. Passport is a political document and there is no absolute right to demand a passport. This statement is also correct because recently the Delhi High Court had observed that every citizen has a fundamental right to go abroad and have a passport issued in his name. So here both the statements are incorrect. Since they are asking for the incorrect statements the correct answer here is option C both one and two. See this is a very useful initiative. We have carefully curated 50 important topics and discussed everything in detail. So make full use of it to boost your film score. If you like this video, like, comment and share it with your friends. For more updates regarding UPSC preparation subscribe to Shankara IS Academy's YouTube channel. Thank you.