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Now, what I saw was that if you put your balls into piles of "n", you will have precisely "n - 1" left over. This is true regardless of n. I also noted that your n was each prime number from 2 to 11. I didnt use modular arithmetic. I simply multiplied the prime numbers 2 through 11 together and subtracted 1. Seems simpler to do it that way, though likely not a general solution technique.
thnx...k i`ll tell u how i tried to solve..becoz i had no idea of chinese theorem, i tried the trial n error method....u said for piles of 11, 10 balls remain...so i tuk all multiples of 11 n simply added 10 to them so naturally the remainder will b 10...now for piles of 2, 1 ball remains which means the final answer is an odd number..so i rejected all even multiples of 11 n multiples which end in 5 coz they r completely divisible by 5...then i got 2099 as anwer..small calculation mistake may b
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