The Hypostatic Union
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lol! after he got done speaking 'WHAT?!' was exactly what I said. lol great intro!
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Look at Phil 2:6 - Jesus had always had the Honour. He was by very nature God. But he humbled himself and made himself in the likeness of man. How could he have humbled himself if he was not in a position of exaltation in the first place? It is because of his humbled lowly position and his obedience till death that God had exalted him. Jesus always had the glory of God though prior to the incarnation (John 17:5).
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As per verse 22 - the "judgement seat of Christ" and "the judgement seat of God" are used syonomously in scripture. The new testament still affirms that God is judge of all.
V 26 - Yes. Jesus was both fully God and fully man. As a man, he was just as dependant on God as any other man was. As man, he lived because of the Father, but as God, we all live because of him. He sustains all things Col (1:17).
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"Does that sound like equals? "the Son can do nothing of himself" and "UNLESS it is something he sees the Father doing"
"...so that all may honour the son JUST AS they honour the Father." That sure sounds more like it speaks to equality with God then Jesus affirmation that he can do only what he sees the Father do.
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Also, in your interpretation of john 5:19 and what follows,you are reading in something that is inconsistent with what John had stated in John 5:18. John did not say that the Jews sought more to kill him becasue he was calling God his own Father [which they mistakenly perceived him to be] making himself equal with God.
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"Does that sound like equals? "the Son can do nothing of himself" and "UNLESS it is something he sees the Father doing"
What does it have to do with equality or inferiority at all? Jesus was making the point that him and the Father are in perfect unity." The fact that Jesus does only what the Father does would strongly imply his deity don't you think? Can you name one person that can say that they do only what they see the Heavenly Father do?
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Hey! You're back, and laying the smack down on heresy once again I see!
In the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit. Amen.
And we must all surmise that you would necessarily confess the theotokos doctrine, that Mary is the Mother of God. Correct?
TheTrinityDelusion 2 months ago in playlist Uploaded videos
@TheTrinityDelusion Yes I do. But that's a different docttr\ne all together. The reason I find it hard to believe that you were ever a trinitarian is because of the above example. I will explain in my next video. I'm on vacation this week so I will find time.
October31st1517 2 months ago
@October31st1517 You are assuming that when Jesus refers to himself as "The Son of God" he is really meaning "God the Son"
Your idea of the Godman is unscriptural.
steveparadise1 2 months ago
@steveparadise1 No ASSUMPTION on my part at all. "Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God." So calling God His Father makes Him equal with WHO?
October31st1517 2 months ago
@October31st1517 Jesus many times called himself "Son of Man". In doing so he emphasised that he truly was a man, flesh and blood, and did not just materialise a body like angels had done in the past.
The bible speaks of many " Sons of God". Angels and Adam for instance. Jesus is truly a "Son of God" but in a superior and unique way.
Is not the "hypostatic union" Jesus "The Man" and Jesus "The God" ? The God/Man. As opposed to Jesus "man" and "Son of God"
Unscriptural
steveparadise1 2 months ago
@steveparadise1 Your answers contradict themselves. You are correct when you say that Son of Man means that whatever it takes to be human, Jesus has it. So likewise when Jesus calls Himself THE Son of God, whatever it takes to be God, Jesus has it. Also your explaination of the hypostatic union is incorrect. Jesus the Man? Jesus the God? You cannot seperate the natures of Christ. That would be heretical Jesus was the Godman.
October31st1517 2 months ago