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Adverse Possession

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Uploaded by on Nov 10, 2009

http://www.lawinfo.com
Ownership of land can be acquired even if the person does not own it. They must use the land as the owner would use it and must not hide what the use is for.

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Education

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  • @MeascEntertainment No, it's NOT everyone's land. Do you want people hanging out in your yard and parking on your driveway?

  • i'm gay

    

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  • Although I am for individual property rights,if a large corporation or bank has forclosed a house,then I have no problem with people squatting,the banks don't deserve it.

  • @mikedamat

    Owning land is pretty fucking immoral. It's everyone's land. How does anyone "own" a piece of the earth. It's silly.

  • That seems, immoral.

  • What is the difference between the terms "openly" and "notoriously"? Since both words are used often in the same phrase, but are delineated by the word "and", there must logically be a difference between them, no? Please help me to understand the difference, since I can't seem to find this anywhere and no one seems to have an explanation. I am a Real Estate student and need to understand the difference. thanks in advance for your time and help.

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