As I began my studies~ I was surprised to learn, from looking up words in the Strong's Concordance, that when the Hebrew and Greek were translated into English, often only one English word was used for several different Hebrew or Greek words. And in reading the Scriptures, we read our English understanding into the words and confidently believe we understand the author's original intent. Consequently there are many interpretations of Scripture and as we will soon see many precious jewels of truth have been lost in false settings, as we will see.
Since we've been promised more light from the law, the transcript of Christ's character, to begin our study, let's look up the word law in the Strong's Concordance to see what the definition would be. However, in view of the fact that there are several Hebrew words for the one English word law, how are we going to know which one will give us the definition for moral law? We have always said that the word law in Isaiah 8:20 is moral law. That verse reads as follows. "To the law and the testimony if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them." Here we see, in the Strong's Concordance that the identification number for this particular word for moral law is 8451.
Before looking up the definition I was quite surprised to notice that not only did it say "law of the Lord" 8451 but also, over and over again it said "law of Moses" 8451.
I thought these were two different laws? "Shouldn't they have two different numbers? I was also surprised by the definition the Strong's Concordance gave.
8451. Torah, to-raw`; from 3384; a precept or statute, espec, the Decalogue, or Pentateuch: - law.
Torah?
That's the first five books of the Bible. Shouldn't the definition say just Decalogue? I thought the Moral Law was the Ten Commandments written on stone and "the Mosaic law of statutes and ordinances were ended at the cross."
Thinking this would be easy to verify, I began a study on the "Law of Moses" and this is what I found.
The Mosaic Law "amplified principles of Decalogue" (PP 364);
The Mosaic Law was "designed to guard sacredness of Decalogue" (PP364).
"The law of Moses' was to play an important part in helping people prepare for the day of the Lord" (4 BC 1134).
The Mosaic law was the "book deposited in the side of the ark of the covenant" PP466
But haven't we always said that the book deposited in the side of the ark, was done away at the cross? And we use Colossians 2:14 as our proof text?
"Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to His cross" (Colossians 2:14).
If this verse is our proof text then are we not saying that the Mosaic Law or the book of the law, deposited in the side of the ark is the same as the word ordinance in this verse? Well then let's look up the word ordinance in the Strong's Concordance and see what the definition would be.
However, there are six Greek words for the one English word ordinance. And the one in Colossians 2:14 is identified as number 1378.
1378 Dogma, a law civil, ceremonial or ecclesiastical: -- decrees, ordinances (Strong's Concordance)
Since dogma is a word we use in the English language we should be able to get a definition from the dictionary.
1a: Something held as an established opinion; especially: a definite authoritative tenet b: A code of such tenets c: a point of view or tenets put forth as authoritative without adequate grounds 2: A doctrines or body of doctrines concerning faith and morals formally stated and authoritatively proclaimed by a church (Webster's Seventh New Collegiate Dictionary)
Let's review that definition:
• A point of view
• an opinion
• without adequate grounds
• authoritatively proclaimed by a church.
With a definition like this how can this word be representing divine law? This sounds like doctrines of men. Let's dig a little deeper and see if the Bible will substantiate this?
In Luke 2:1 the word dogma is translated as decree,
"there went out a decree1378 from Caesar"
This is addressing a man-made Roman civil law, not divine law, also true in...
Acts 17:7
"these all do contrary to the decrees1378 of Caesar"
Loading...
@BaBaBaBlazin Ive heard that the kjv is mistrnaslated, especially the word hell.
MrsRosengard 1 year ago
oh, i watched a long documentary by searching 'translation bible' or something on google video, and it thoroughly proved the NIV is totally changed and corrupted. KJV is the 1611 bible which is 99% accurate to the original greek/hebrew. check it out, peace.
BaBaBaBlazin 2 years ago
---i found that the king james version is the most accurate word of god--
How do you know ? Divine inspiration ?
Philos2006 2 years ago
in my studies, i found that the king james version is the most accurate word of god, and versions like the new international version niv have been changed by corrupt men. i dont understand the obsession with the word law, but the spirit should guide us through the scripture as to what the bible means/intended, and the dictionary should never be trusted above the bible. there are many doctrines of devils to be had by the world, but overcoming the world and realizing the value of scripture iskey
BaBaBaBlazin 2 years ago