Appendix 2A for John 1:1 in the New World Translation

How should John 1:1 be translated?

http://isellsl.com/study/Appendix2A.html

The Kingdom Interlinear Of The Greek Scriptures
Appendix 2A

"These translations use such words as "a god," "divine," or "godlike" because the Greek word Θεὸς (theos) is a singular predicate [part of a sentence containing a verb] noun [a person, place, thing, or group] occurring before the verb [describes an action] and is not preceded by the definite article [the]. This is an anarthrous [a word without an article (a, an, or the) attached to it] Θεὸς theos. The God with whom the Word, or Logos, was originally is designated here by the Greek expression Θεὸς, that is, theos preceded by ho. This is an articular [of or pertaining to the joints] theos. The articular construction of the noun points to an identity, a personality, whereas a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding the verb points to a quality about someone. Therefore, John's statement that the Word, or Logos, was "a god" or "divine" or "godlike" does not mean that he was the God with whom he was. It merely expresses a certain quality about the Word, or Logos, but it does not identify him as one and the same as God himself.
In the Greek text there are many cases of a singular anarthrous [a word without an article (a, an, or the) attached to it] predicate [part of a sentence containing a verb] noun [a person, place, thing, or group] preceding the verb [describes an action] , such as those listed in the accompanying chart. In these places translators insert the indefinite article "a" before the predicate noun in order to bring out the quality or characteristic of the subject. Since the indefinite article is inserted before the predicate noun in such texts, with equal justification the indefinite article "a" is inserted before the anarthrous Θεὸς in the predicate of John 1:1 to make it read "a god." The Sacred Scriptures confirm the correctness of this rendering. In his article "Qualitive Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1," published in Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 92, Philadelphia, 1973, on p. 85 Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, "with an
anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos. There is no basis for regarding the predicate theos as definite." On p. 87 of his article, Harner concluded: "In John 1:1 I think that the qualitative force of the predicate [part of a sentence containing a verb] is so prominent that the noun cannot be regarded as definite."
Following is a list of instances in the gospels of Mark and John where various translators have rendered singular anarthrous predicate noun occurring before the verb with an indefinite article to denote the indefinite and qualitative status of the subject nouns: [from NIV]
Mark 6:49 a ghost, 11:32 a prophet, John 4:19 a prophet, 6:70 a devil, 8:44 a murderer, & a liar, 8:48 a Samaritan, 9:17 a prophet, 10:1 a thief, 10:13 a hired hand, 10:33 a mere man, 12:6 a thief, 18:37 a king, & a king."

Heard the good news? http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eC0b6Up_9zE

Scriptures addressed in this video:
Luke 20:38
John 1:1
John 1:2
John 1:3
John 8:54
Philippians 2:12

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[dunklaw]

What dictates the context is pros (πρός).

In Koine Greek pros (short for prosôpon pros prosôpon, "face to face") was used to show intimacy in personal for John to say "the Word was with God" was for him to mean "the Word was face to face with God"

The Greek clause underlying this clause stipulates, according to a rule of grammar, that "the Word" is the subject and "God" is the predicate nominative.

[preachinshawn]

The context of any passage is determined by what is being addressed. The context of John 1:1-2 is the Words relation to God. If understanding all of what God is, is important to someone, they should start reading in the Hebrew scriptures.

[dunklaw]

Just been reading a book on google books called "Divine Truth Or Human Tradition" by Patrick Navas.

I highly recommend you have a look at it, especially the chapter "the 'deity' of Jesus Christ" regarding John 1:1 "the word was a god" & also the commentaries of John Calvin (regarding passages in John) that contradict fundamental trinitarian beliefs.

[Ni1234ckA]

1.PLEASE GO TO WATCHTOWER ORG SITE

THE NEW WORLD TRANSLATION FOR THE GREEK JW READS IN JOHN 1:1

Στην αρχή ήταν ο Λόγος, και ο Λόγος ήταν μαζί με τον Θεό, και ο Λόγος ήταν θεός

2.COPY THIS VERSE FROM THE WATCHTOWER ORG SITE. 3.GO TO TRANSLATE.GOOGLE.COM.4 PASTE IT THERE. 5 CHOOSE GREEK-TO-ENGLISH

AND THE TRANSLATION READS:

"In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God.!!! A GREEK AUDIENCE CAN'T BE FOOLED-FOR THE KNOW HOW GREEK GRAMMAR WORKS.

[dunklaw]

See littleamigos video 'and the Word was a god'

[dunklaw]

(cont.) What about the he was with 'τον θεον' - THE GOD. και θεος ην ο λογος - AND GOD (NO THE PREFIX) WAS THE WORD again pointing to two separate gods. THE GOD & GOD. Now look at the Hebrew אלהים (elohiym) meaning - mighty one. So he was with THE might one (most mighty) and he was A mighty one (not THE most mighty one) two separate designations therefore this justifies the insertion of 'A' to give the correct understanding.

[dunklaw]

Using this example - my point is when you say that a computer comes WITH (μετά) 1gb ram - that can be considered part of that computer but if that computer had a person sitting NEXT TO (πρός) or IN FRONT (πρός) off you cannot really say the the computer comes with that person as part of the one item. (cont)

[dunklaw]

Koine Greek language had a definite article (the), but it did not have an indefinite article (a or an). So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite article, it may be indefinite, depending on the context.

[bbbfohio]

...not only does their Kingdom Interlinear translated the text as, "and god was the word" but if you read the Emphatic Diaglott that they reference in their NWT translations, you find that the English translation of the text also renders it "God was the word."

So, you add these things to the clear grammatical construct and the context (as you've shown), there is no excuse for translating the text as "the word was a god".

[bbbfohio]

I think you did a very good job on this video.

Some interesting things to add are:

1. The original reference given by Watchtower publications for their translation of "a god" in John 1:1 was the French translation of Johannes Greber. But when he commented on his own translation and admitted he was given the rendering from that tried and true scholarly practice of SPIRITISM... the Watchtower began distancing themselves from referencing his "bible translation".

Another interesting fact is....