Part 2 Christian Scriptural Errors Chap 1 with Asher ...

Part 2 Christian Scriptural Errors Chap 1 with Asher Meza of BeJewish.org.. You can also be Jewish, Consider Judaism,,,

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[pradaluggage2]

@lakazev

100% correct!

[tubermind]

This is that scripture which corresponds to streams of living water:

Jeremiah 17:7-8

English Standard Version (ESV) 7 "Blessed is the man who trusts in the LORD, whose trust is the LORD.

8 He is like a tree planted by water, that sends out its roots by the stream,

and does not fear when heat comes, for its leaves remain green,

and is not anxious in the year of drought, for it does not cease to bear fruit."

[EdM021]

3:16 There wasn't even any archaeological evidence for a Town of Nazareth at the time of Jesus' life! All the evidence I have seen was that a no-name hamlet came to life shortly after his death (Mid 1st C. CE and later) and slowly grew and finally became known as Nazareth about 150 CE.

[lakazev]

Xtianity and Torah are 2 separate and different religions.

1) In Torah G-d is ONE / Xtian deity is 3

2) Torah= G-d is not a man /Xtian deity is a man

3)Torah= Human sacrifices are an abomination/ Xtianity is a human sacrifice

4) Torah= Instruction to live by (life for us) /Xtianity calls Torah a curse

5)

[KnarlyDUDE09]

THIS VIDEO MAKES A LOT OF SENSE!

[1xosue]

Thank you for all of the pointless rants about the new testament being false and then stating that God is trying to tell us something through the new testament.

Well which is it ? I once head a nazi used this same kind of foolish logic to explain how the holocaust didn't happen either it was just made up by the Jews but we know that history proves that logic wrong and that same history proves your argument as FAIL

[1daewoo888]

@CRoadwarrior Read it again viewing יהוה as being anything created, is Idolatry; creator cannot be defined as created.

[CRoadwarrior]

@Heart4Steelers Where "almah" is used and did not mean "virgin" is beside the issue. There are places where "bethulah" is used and it does NOT mean sexual virgin because it is applied to human cities. God does not have to always give a miraculous sign. Sometimes they are quite plain, as Scripture itself indicates. The sign was not just that a woman would have a baby, but the text goes on to say more...so read what it says.

[CRoadwarrior]

@psandbergnz I have demonstrated from Scripture in the Hebrew that "bethulah" and "almah" are NOT mutually exclusive as many try to claim. THAT is the point. No other arguments matter. You claim Matthew misapplied the text, yet I guess the Septuagint Jews decided to help Matthew out hundreds of years before Matthew (since Matt quotes the LXX). That is laughable. The Septuagint Jews translated "alma" to "parthenos," which means "virgin" but not virgin exclusively. Your arguments fail.

[CRoadwarrior]

@PathofTorah4life No, there is no "greek doctrine" here. You speak from ignorance or misinformation. We do not teach any "man-god." We teach Jesus is the God-man, and there is a significant theological difference. I have taken nothing out of context. And if you make that claim, you need to substantiate it. The Scriptures are for ALL people, as Torah itself makes clear.