LARRY HURTADO How did Jesus become a God

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• LARRY
• HURTADO
• How
• did
• Jesus
• become
• God

[EdM021]

If Q isn't Matthew's Hebrew "The Oracles of the Lord" mentioned by Papias then we don't know where they came from. Greek Matthew could have invented those sayings then. Per scholarship, Greek Mark (Mark) preceded Greek Matthew.

And it is accepted Catholic tradition that Mark was written in Latin originally. It is confirmed

From Catholic Planet dot com, "The Writing of the Gospels - Relationship between the Synoptics.

"Mark's Gospel was written second, in the Latin language, at Rome."

[betlamed]

@EdM021 I don't see any proof that these "oracles" are identical with Q. It is possible, of course, but we shouldn't jump from "possible" to "certain" without any actual texts. Your second sentence is a bit confusing - are you saying that Codex Sinaiticus/C.Vaticanus are written in latin? Or that Mark used a latin source? If so, how did you reach that (somewhat sensational) conclusion?

[EdM021]

@betlamed Q is NOT hypothetical, Papias (135 AD) called it "The Oracles of Our Lord" and he said it was written in Hebrew, which we can assume was actually Aramaic. Mark, on the other hand, was translated from a Latin original by a Greek speaker whose first language was Aramaic.

[EdM021]

Worse, there is a cup discovered in Alexandria Harbor, Egypt, that is dedicated to Chrestos, typically seen as Christos = Jesus Christ. The inscription on the cup reads on one side "DIA ChRHSTOY" and on the other "OGOISTAIS," that is, "Through Chrestos, a magician." The cup is dated late 2nd C. BC to early 1st C. AD with 50 BC as a mean point, and is determined to originate from Asia Minor, perhaps Pergamon. Worship of Christ before he even existed? (History Hunters Int'l / Arch. of the Chrest)

[LogosTheos]

(Richard Bauckham, Jesus and the God of Israel, pp.191)

[LogosTheos]

@MaxGravitas, "OT scriptures that were applied to Jesus in the NT were only done to show Jesus was the true reflection and agent of Yahweh, God the father, no that Jesus was Yahweh"

This is a low grade explanation brother. For example Richard Bauckham notes that allusions to the OT in Pauline Christology function as either "monotheistic assertions in themselves or relate to a fairly monotheistic assertion in the fairly immediate context".. Joel 2:32 to Acts 2:21, Rom 10:9-13 is a clear app

[betlamed]

@wedge2006 Q is purely hypothetical, but it's the best explanation for the given data we have. Jesus' existence doesn't necessarily explain all that much.

[wedge2006]

@betlamed I've always find it fascinating that some of these "scholars", like Robert Price, as more certain of the existence of Q than Jesus himself. lol

[MaxGravitas]

Its blasphemous to say Jesus is Yahweh come in the flesh. Yahweh is the father, the only 'true God' as Jesus said. Jesus was monotheistic, calling his father 'my god' and telling others after his resurrection that the father was their God, not himself. Yahweh, the god of the Israelites was Jesus' God, the head of Jesus 1 Cor 11:3. OT scriptures that were applied to Jesus in the NT were only done to show Jesus was the true reflection and agent of Yahweh, God the father, no that Jesus was Yahweh.

[comdragon90]

u all should build greenhouse building over farmland to grow more crops....