Why Ahmed Deedat changed mind

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This is a search to find why Ahmed Deedat changed his mind and rejected his own writing which was done willingly.
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[tereinaam]

can you please show me any such article where he claomed to be a prophet of god,

please note that prophet can be a messenger but messenger can not a prophet.

regards

[RenegadeMaster07]

@a4d2d0 good to see your friendly :)

when someone says I am Gabriel. They are saying what the I am represents.

I hebrew "I AM" means YHWH or JHWH, which is either Yahweh or Jehovah depending on how you translate it. This is accepted as the name of God. In any occasion in the King James Bible where it says LORD with capitals, that is the word Jehovah. The actual meaning of the word is I AM.

[RenegadeMaster07]

@a4d2d0 i love your answers man :)

as you say though, John was written in Greek, and Jesus if i remember spoke Aramaic. So there is still the words "I am", and in Exodus that is what YHWH actually means.

And as i also said, what could "I am" mean when Jesus is talking about a past event. To me he is claiming an eternal presence, and that he is outside of time. Looks like a divine nature to me.

[a4d2d0]

@a4d2d0 and thats EZ as in the book of EZRA.

[a4d2d0]

@RenegadeMaster07 continued.... -not of any relationship to the mention of "I AM" in EX3:14. Yes, the OT is original Hebrew, and yes John was written in Greek not Hebrew, but even still there is a distinction between the usage of the same English phrase when it is put into Hebrew. Meaning two different "I am"s with two distinct meanings.

[a4d2d0]

@RenegadeMaster07 Well done, you almost had me there for a second! However, looking at the original Hebrew in EX3:14, The "I AM" looks like this אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה , and sounds like "eh-yeh", where as anytime LORD is used, you will see יְהוָ֞ה which sounds like "YaHWeH", and anytime "God" is used, it looks like אֱלֹהֵ֣י and sounds like "elohei", meaning literally 'the-god'. There is a clear distinction between all these names. But in JN8:58, the "I AM" looks like אני הוא, which is a literal "I am". not-

[RenegadeMaster07]

@RenegadeMaster07 Let's say your right though. Jesus said "I am". Why didn't he say "I was"?

The only way this makes sense to me is that he was saying that even in the past, even before Abraham came into being, he IS present. Which means that Jesus is claiming to be outside of the normal time scale of ordinary man.

It's irrelevant, if he was tellin the truth or not, he was claiming some sort of divinity. So if he wasn't saying he is YHWH he was claiming to be another god. A second divinity.

[a4d2d0]

@RenegadeMaster07 No worries,we are all brothers in this world,and companions on the path to truth and understanding.1Tim 6:16 says that no man has seen nor can see God,Jn 1:18 says the same. In Lk 1:19, Gabriel says "I am Gabriel",surely that does not mean Gabriel is God?Of course not. The only difference is the capitals, and the capitals are not found in Hebrew, Greek or Aramaic. Jesus did say "I am" as it it meant something specific, but still isnt connected to God's words in Ex3:14.

[RenegadeMaster07]

@a4d2d0 ah well played sir :) lol

however in the context Jesus is asked how he is not 50 years old but has seen Abraham, so saying "Before Abraham was, there was God" doesn't answer their question. It is then followed by verse 59 where the jewish leaders pick up stones with which to stone Jesus. It doesn't make sense this way as they too would also have believed God was before Abraham.

Great answer though, i like how you think. I should've posted the context though i apologise.

[a4d2d0]

@RenegadeMaster07 Or because the quotes you just quoted don't actually support your hypothesis. "I AM" is the name of God, so saying that "before Abraham, I AM", simply means that before Abraham there was Allah...