@miguelthemexican99, the correct translation is not "if the slave survives a day or two" but "if the slave recovers after a day or two" Anyways, this is a hard verse to understand. The question is, is the slave actually the property of his owner, according to that time period?
@forest51690 When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB). Is that fair?
@miguelthemexican99, oh my bad. I got confused between my conversations. I mistakenly thought we were talking about something else. So just ignore my last comment.
I'm not sure what to say then. Sure some might have been forced into marriage. Or maybe not. Maybe they didn't ever force a woman into a marriage, because they thought it was wrong. There are a lot of things that we don't know about this situation. But I know that God is fair from the rest of the Old Testament, so I trust what he did
@forest51690 well if the women did not have to marry them what would be there fate? would they be there sex slaves? .the exact quote is " Now kill all the boys and all the women who have slept with a man. Only the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves."
@miguelthemexican99, the law says that "the man cannot divorce the woman for as long as he lives", but it says nothing about the woman divorcing the man. I think it was unspoken that the woman definitely did not have to marry him.
@forest51690 but what is your assumptions are incorrect? that means that some women will forced into a marriage against there will.that is very wrong.
@miguelthemexican99 I'm just assuming that it is based on what I know of that time. It was the men who worked during the day and I guess the women would not have known how to farm and hunt, etc. And the women left were virgins, unmarried, so they were probably all under 15, from what I've heard. Also, all of their fathers, brothers, uncles, and any other people they knew were probably dead.
@miguelthemexican99 the wives were taken, but I doubt it was against their will. First of all, it's better to die from the sword than to die of hunger. (Lamentations 4:9) Second, it's better to live than to die. (Eccesiastes 9:4) God didn't do anything heinous here. Do you know why he commanded the Israelites to kill all the men and married women in the first place?
@miguelthemexican99, the correct translation is not "if the slave survives a day or two" but "if the slave recovers after a day or two" Anyways, this is a hard verse to understand. The question is, is the slave actually the property of his owner, according to that time period?
forest51690 3 months ago
@forest51690 When a man strikes his male or female slave with a rod so hard that the slave dies under his hand, he shall be punished. If, however, the slave survives for a day or two, he is not to be punished, since the slave is his own property. (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB). Is that fair?
miguelthemexican99 3 months ago
@miguelthemexican99, oh my bad. I got confused between my conversations. I mistakenly thought we were talking about something else. So just ignore my last comment.
I'm not sure what to say then. Sure some might have been forced into marriage. Or maybe not. Maybe they didn't ever force a woman into a marriage, because they thought it was wrong. There are a lot of things that we don't know about this situation. But I know that God is fair from the rest of the Old Testament, so I trust what he did
forest51690 3 months ago
@forest51690 well if the women did not have to marry them what would be there fate? would they be there sex slaves? .the exact quote is " Now kill all the boys and all the women who have slept with a man. Only the young girls who are virgins may live; you may keep them for yourselves."
miguelthemexican99 3 months ago in playlist More videos from forest51690
@miguelthemexican99, the law says that "the man cannot divorce the woman for as long as he lives", but it says nothing about the woman divorcing the man. I think it was unspoken that the woman definitely did not have to marry him.
forest51690 3 months ago
@forest51690 but what is your assumptions are incorrect? that means that some women will forced into a marriage against there will.that is very wrong.
miguelthemexican99 3 months ago
@miguelthemexican99 I'm just assuming that it is based on what I know of that time. It was the men who worked during the day and I guess the women would not have known how to farm and hunt, etc. And the women left were virgins, unmarried, so they were probably all under 15, from what I've heard. Also, all of their fathers, brothers, uncles, and any other people they knew were probably dead.
forest51690 1 year ago
@forest51690 how do you know it wasn't against there will? how do you know that they would die of hunger?
miguelthemexican99 1 year ago
@miguelthemexican99 the wives were taken, but I doubt it was against their will. First of all, it's better to die from the sword than to die of hunger. (Lamentations 4:9) Second, it's better to live than to die. (Eccesiastes 9:4) God didn't do anything heinous here. Do you know why he commanded the Israelites to kill all the men and married women in the first place?
forest51690 1 year ago
@miguelthemexican99 No, as far as I know, the OT law doesn't prohibit husbands from forcing their wives to sleep with them.
forest51690 1 year ago