It is one of the 5 sooktams, dedicated to Lord Vishnu, in the Vedas.
The Purusha Sooktam gives us the essence of the philosophy of Vedanta, the Vedic tradition, as well as the Bhagavad-gita and Bha...
It is one of the 5 sooktams, dedicated to Lord Vishnu, in the Vedas. The Purusha Sooktam gives us the essence of the philosophy of Vedanta, the Vedic tradition, as well as the Bhagavad-gita and Bhagavat Purana. It incorporates the principles of meditation (upasana), knowledge (jnana), devotion (bhakti), and rituals and duties (dharma and karma.
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while Vishnu is same as Brahman, this verse is not after Vishnu. Infact, in vedas, esp in Rig Vishnu is hardly mentioned. This is about that individual/force behind the Big Bang!
and secondly, you don't understand what I'm saying, Sanskrit, due to the fact that the Vedas are Shruti, there was absolutely NO change whatsoever in the way it was spoken and recited. Through disciplic succession, the Vedas were passed on from one generation to the next; exactly like they were from the previous generations. NO change, at any time.
Hmm. perhaps you are right. To be frank, I am no Sanskrit scholar but I have read a little bit about philology and as a practicing Hindu Brahmin, recitation of several shlokas is part of my daily life. I have talked to several Pandits and they have stated repeatedly that the Vedas, their recitation in particular, has never changed; hence the possibility of them being Shruti.
Btw, aren't all languages said to be Aprabhansa or corruptions of Sanskrit itself?
okay, now it's clear, you are regurgitating some eurocentric garbage disguised as philological fact. What's next? You're going to say the Aryan Invasion Theory is true! haha.. Sanskrit DID NOT evolve! Ever! It is the eternal language and the 52 bija mantras have ALWAYS been the same. From those bija mantras, of which AUM is the most significant, all sounds are possible! Sanskrit itself means "that which is perfect".
I said Sanskrit HAS NOT changed after it was codified because people no longer spoke it as a first language.
Spoken languages always evolve. That is a fact. The Vedic language is very different from the Sanskrit of the Upanishads. Any Indian Sanskrit scholar will tell you that. This not some Euro-centric "view".
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Hari Sarvottam || Vayu jivottam
Btw, aren't all languages said to be Aprabhansa or corruptions of Sanskrit itself?
Do not think of any langauge as being a "corruption" of some other language. Languages evolve. It is a natural phenomenon.
By the time Sanskrit was codified, it had already "evolved" from the Vedic language, which evolved from an older proto Indo-Iranian language.
The concept of "pure" and "corrupt" is meaningless, just like for human "races".
I said Sanskrit HAS NOT changed after it was codified because people no longer spoke it as a first language.
Spoken languages always evolve. That is a fact. The Vedic language is very different from the Sanskrit of the Upanishads. Any Indian Sanskrit scholar will tell you that. This not some Euro-centric "view".
I am NOT supporting any Aryan invasion theory.