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1) joshuaspolar As you know, one has to interpret passages in context. Christian Theology sates Romans 1 is the Jewish Paul looking at life in the capital of Graeco-Roman culture. Paul is speaking to those who violate their sexual orientation, those that go against their natural desire. But a homosexual's natural desire is for the same sex. Therefore this verse doesn't speak of them. In fact, if you encourage a 'constitutional homosexual' to become heterosexual you are violating this passage!!
2) These passages deal with behavior among heterosexuals who have converted from Christianity to Paganism and engaged in homosexual behavior which is against their nature. There is no real connection between: former Christians in the first century CE who have returned to Paganism and engaged in sexual orgies, and persons with a homosexual orientation who have entered into a loving, committed relationship or same-sex marriage.
3) Having lived in a pre-scientific era, Paul would not have had access to the research in human sexuality which started in the late 19th century and which only became widespread in the latter half of the 20th century. He would have been unaware of the concept of biological sexual orientation. Glad to have been able to enlighten u on the true meaning of Romans 1:26-27!!
If my questions are making you think more than you like to, then maybe you should critically think about what you believe and care more whether or not what you believe is in fact true.
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So now who is attacking who?
As you know, one has to interpret passages in context. Christian Theology sates Romans 1 is the Jewish Paul looking at life in the capital of Graeco-Roman culture. Paul is speaking to those who violate their sexual orientation, those that go against their natural desire. But a homosexual's natural desire is for the same sex. Therefore this verse doesn't speak of them. In fact, if you encourage a 'constitutional homosexual' to become heterosexual you are violating this passage!!