Uploaded by lazyperfectionist1 on Mar 23, 2009
The most basic fallacy.
Script here:
http://lazyperfectionist1.blogspot.com/2011/02/logical-fallacies-2-non-sequit...
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Uploader Comments (lazyperfectionist1)
All Comments (26)
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@EliteDoomer Yes, I agree with that.
Censeo 6 months ago
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@Censeo An all loving god for this universe is impossible for we suffer. An all loving god is the only one worthy of worship and respect. An all powerful, all loving god does not exist in any universe, for if one did it would have not allowed suffering to exist here.
EliteDoomer 6 months ago
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Good vid. *thumbs up*
SpoiledLogic 7 months ago
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thank you. that was what i was asking :) It appears i didn't fully understand the concept of non-sequitur but now i do
shaneho78 1 year ago
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Philosophy doesn't rely purely on language. It is a logical endevour and also philosophy use some times scientific discoveries in their considerations. Note that math use less than that (only language and logic)
Censeo 2 years ago
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I know what burden of proof means. God doesn't exist as electrons and quarks, as you put it. Neither does meaning.
Censeo 2 years ago
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God cannot create an unstoppable attack and an impregnable defense at the same time, therefore god is not omnipotent. is that argument non-sequitur?
shaneho78 1 year ago
@shaneho78 Hmm. Well that's an interesting one. Let's examine it. In order for an attack to be accurately called "unstoppable," it must be an attack which cannot be stopped by anything whatsoever. It must be an attack which cannot be stopped by any manner of defense. If you are utterly confident that a certain attack is unstoppable, you must be confident that you can predict that nothing will stop it.
(cont'd)
lazyperfectionist1 1 year ago
@lazyperfectionist1 It has occured to me, though, that this does not account for the possibility of the attack in question circumnavigating the defense in question. As long as this possibility remains, it seems to me that it is possible for an unstoppable attack and an impregnable defense to coexist.
lazyperfectionist1 1 year ago
Ah, but wait a minute. That's not your question. What you are asking is whether the conclusion properly follows from the premises.
First premise: This is clearly impossible
Second premise: An omnipotent being is a being for whom nothing is impossible
Conclusion: Therefore, God cannot be accurately called omnipotent.
I would say this is not a non sequitur. While I have a problem with one of the premises, the conclusion properly follows from them.
lazyperfectionist1 1 year ago