Convincing Trinitarians of The Oneness of God-Talmadge French Part 1 of 8

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Uploaded by on May 16, 2010

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  • @143whatsnew Jesus in the flesh was the Son. But he had the Spirit of God the Father in him. There was only one way there could be a perfect being and that is if God was in him. Look at Jhn 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou [then], Shew us the Father? Jesus explains to Philip who he was.

  • John 3:16

    New International Version (NIV) 16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.

    can any one explain this to me?pls...need more wisdom..and clarification

  • you all drive me crazy with your trinity and oneness! which really if you look at the scriptures, you all beleive the same thing. heres something thats sooo simple but definitely not popular among a majority of the church world...John 3 16: For God so loved the world that he gave His only begotten Son. God didnt turn into Jesus, it clearly states that he sent his son to die for us! So therefore lets do some basic math!... God plus Jesus = 2 persons!

  • In the spirit of love.

    Jesus being God says he has a Father, the Jesus has a Father. If Jesus is his own Father, it is role, Jesus is half man/half god, then youtr theology redefines God word. That imply statement would place yours words over God. I know that is wrong.

  • @james67707 No Clue......

  • WILLIAM SEYMOUR FOUNDED YOUR CHURCH NOT JESUS THEY THINK JESUS WAS A CREATION JUST LIKE JEHOVA WITNESSES BUT THEY DON'T CALL HIM JEHOVA THEY CALL HIM JESUS

  • @iamTOTALLYredeemed "By reason of" is quite simple, and a quick Google search would have sufficed. Here's what I found to help you: "Because of, owing to, as in By reason of a crop failure, the price of coffee is bound to rise."

    So, to draw a parallel, by reason of His Son, God the Father made all things.

  • @iamTOTALLYredeemed Yes, I am for real. Heb 1:10 is another point the author is making. He's not referring to the Son, who is a man; He is referring to God, the Father - quite clear when you see it comes from Ps 102. And just as clear is the "He" mentioned in Heb 1:13, which no doubt is the Father: The antecedent of that "He" is "the Lord" of verse 10. The Trinitarian translation of Heb 1 is absolutely absurd - God having a God? If that was true, He'd cease from being God.

  • @iamTOTALLYredeemed God's Word is indeed a distinct person from Him! God's Word, His expression, became a man. However, this man is not deity. While there is debate whether or not John 8:58 is really referring to the revelation of God's name to Moses in Exodus 3, it is still not to be confused with Jesus Himself claiming to be God. He is the Word of God because His Words are not His own - they are of His Father's. Refer to Deut 18:18, Acts 7:37 and John 14:10.

  • @iamTOTALLYredeemed So basically the verse is telling us that Jesus has the status of God, but He didn't let it get to His head, so to speak. He was never proud or arrogant, but rather humbled Himself, always emptying Himself, even to the point of death on a cross. Jesus is the greatest example of humility for us.

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