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Way of the Master "ALLNEEDCHRIST" Catholic Couple (Part 1)

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  • likes, 8 dislikes

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  • We can clearly see that in the three other uses of the Greek word petra (nominative singular; "petras" in 1 Cor. 10:4 is genitive singular) we find it referred to as a large immovable mass of rock in which a tomb is carved out (Matt. 27:60) and in reference to Christ (1 Cor. 10:4; 1 Pet. 2:8). Note that Peter himself in the last verse referred to petra as being Jesus! If Peter uses the word as a reference to Jesus, then shouldn't we?

  • 1 Cor. 10:4, "and all drank the same spiritual drink, for they were drinking from a spiritual rock (petras) which followed them; and the rock (petra) was Christ." 1 Pet. 2:8, speaking of Jesus says that he is "A stone of stumbling and a rock (petra) of offense"; for they stumble because they are disobedient to the word, and to this doom they were also appointed."

  • The feminine "petra" occurs four times in the Greek New Testament: Matt. 16:18, "And I also say to you that you are Peter (petros), and upon this rock (petra) I will build My church; and the gates of Hades shall not overpower it." Matt. 27:60, "and laid it in his own new tomb, which he had hewn out in the rock (petra); and he rolled a large stone against the entrance of the tomb and went away."

  • Let me illustrate by using the words "actor" and "actress:" "You are the actor and with this actress I will make my movie." Do see that the gender influences how a sentence is understood? Jesus was not saying that the church will be built upon Peter, but upon something else. What, then, does petra, the feminine noun, refer to?

  • There are problems with the Roman Catholic position. First of all, when we look at the Greek of Matthew 16:18 we see something that is not obvious in the English. "...you are Peter (πέτρος, petros) and upon this rock (πέτρα, petra) I will build My church..." In Greek nouns have gender.

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  • @750Brittney just because I'm an atheist doesnt mean I dont know the bible better than most preachers. In may 2010 i graduated The ambassadors accedemy, preached on the same beach as chad williams, Ray Comfort and other aevangelists I was an openairpreacher a long time before I step foot on that beach. stop telling people what you think the bible says and go study it in its original language instead of foolishly relying on translation. Go get a jpgreen interlinear for starters and a lexicon.

  • @750Brittney O sure jesuses blood isn't enough unless you add your free will to it! But in Romans 9 Paul asks who can resist the will of God ? Expecting noone as the reply but then you say "man can". Jesus in john ch 6 say every single one practicing sin is a (doulos) slave of sin. The NT doesn't teach freewill! Even being saved in the NT isnt being free but being liberated from the fallen sin nature that craves sin, only to be given a new nature that is a slave of righteiousness.

  • @750Brittney Also you have mis applyed Romans 10:13 and ripped it out of its context! By doing so you make it sound as though all ya gotta do it say some words and work up some repentane and tears and then god will say " say o i was hoping you'd say that " and grant you eternal life on the bases of your repentance or tears or sincerity. By doing so you destroy grace and replace it with cheap synergism. Make god responsive in stead of causitive. Read Romans 9.

  • @750Brittney I will refute your cliams with one verse. 1john 5:1 Believing is in the present tense and born of god is perfect tense. Which means you can't even believe in god unless you already have been born of god. John 6:44 no one can come to me unless it my draws him and i will raise him on the last day. ICor 2:14 but the nature man (spiritualy dead man) does not desire thing things of god neither can he know them, they spiritually apraised.

  • @750Brittney your talking to an atheist who reads Biblical GK and "whosoever" isn't in Romans 10:13 stop relying on kjv. The word translated whosoever is (pas) and it's in the sg and it is wrongly translated "whosoever" not only in Roman 10:13 but also in John 3:16. This is why interlinear bibles dont translated that way.

  • @750Brittney stop relying on bible translations and study the text for your self! Check my 2 part series "self educated" and my 3part series "for god so loved the world?". I am an ex Christian apologist, long time student of the Greek NT and former street evangelist.

  • @750brittney No actuallty it says "for by grace ( charis ) you have been saved (perfect tense) (dia) through faith ( not because of faith) and this not of yourselves (refering to faith) but the free gift of god. If you had bothered to study Epheisans 2:8 you would clearly see that it teaches saving faith (pistuown pres act ind) is a gift and no one is born with it. Which mean that only those who have been granted this faith, pres act ind have been saved and are being saved.

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