8. English Grammar Lesson. Past Participles and Present Participles
Uploader Comments (mrthoth)
Top Comments
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Great Job!!!! but not for beginners
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What about the word 'did'.
can you said i 'did' the work yesterday .
And what forms of the sentences does the word "did" applied?
All Comments (56)
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This video made my score from 0 to 10
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Thanks a lot I go to an online school (keystone middle) and you helped me understand this concept.
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There are many irregular verbs where the past tense is the same as the past participle. For example: bet (bet, bet), bring (brought, brought), build (built, built), catch (caught, caught), etc...
Why is it "has run" instead of "has ran" then? so confusing
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Regarding your comment on "I was beaten" in response to some earlier comments, what do you mean when you say that this is a form of past passive tense but not past participle? "Beaten" here is still the past participle form of "beat" isn't it?
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you should teach my teacher. she's been harping this crap for weeks and i didn't get it. Watched this video and in five minutes i got it. wth?
I've read elsewhere that the past participle is to be used whenever there is an auxillary verb separating the subject of the sentence and the verb, otherwise the past tense is used - eg I swam uses the past tense whereas I have swum uses the past participle. But what about "I was bored"? According to the rule above, "bored" here is the past participle but it doesn't satisfy your rule about using a form of "to have". Can the past participle be used with auxillary verbs like "do" and "was" too?
tudormonarch 11 months ago
@tudormonarch It's not true that past participles invariably follow auxiliary verbs. Consider "I am swimming" (present participle following "am") or "I do care" (root form following "do") or "I have been thinking" (present participle following "have" and "been"). "I was bored," however, is something quite different. "Was" in that sentence is a main verb, not an auxiliary. Auxiliaries are followed by other verbs, but "bored" here is an adjective, as "sleepy" is in "I was sleepy."
mrthoth 11 months ago
Great lessons! I have a question.
I'm a computer programmer. We often say, "Program 5 has been rerun".
Is it correct to say, "Program 5 has been reran"?
I could not find a definition for the word "rerun" used in this way.
Thanks.
shakespeare5555 1 year ago
@shakespeare5555 It's "been rerun." The race has been run and rerun (not ran and reran). The program has been run and rerun. The dishwasher has been run and rerun. When you've got "has been BLANKED," the "BLANKED" is always going to be a past participle, and "ran" and "reran" are not past participles; they are past tense.
mrthoth 1 year ago
question...
the only thing i knew is that when you're using was, there's should be a specific time.. for example.. I walked yesterday... Yesterday is the specific day.. and if there is have, there's no specific time for example, i have walked...
and the question is.. am i right???
marshmallow1507 1 year ago
I haven't heard that before, and I don't think it works. Consider this sentence: "In my boyhood, I played with my friends in the streets." No specific time is indicated; the action took place repeatedly, presumably. Consider this: "I have bought the milk, as you requested." That sounds like a one-time, temporally precise action.
mrthoth 1 year ago