Alert icon
We're changing our privacy policy. This stuff matters.  Learn more  Dismiss

Isaiah 7:14

Loading...

Sign in or sign up now!
Alert icon
Upgrade to the latest Flash Player for improved playback performance. Upgrade now or more info.
1,265
Loading...
Alert icon
Sign in or sign up now!
Alert icon

Uploaded by on May 30, 2007

Two questions for Christians on Isaiah 7:14 & Matthew 1:23.

Category:

People & Blogs

Tags:

License:

Standard YouTube License

  • likes, 3 dislikes

Link to this comment:

Share to:

Uploader Comments (BryanAJParry)

  • When the disciples were around Jesus, they called him the son of God, or God with us. Jesus was the name given by God, but mankind called him the Christ or Emmanuel.

  • Mankind doesn't ever call him "Emmanuel" except in Mt1

  • Bryan, its not the prophets message which is stressed as the proof, (again people in general dont' understand what biblical prophecy was or how it was handled), instead it is the resurrection itself, the fact taht Jesus, even after he had died, continued to effect his followers lives.

  • Yes, I understand this. But the point is that this Isaiah passage is used as evidence that Jesus was the prophesised one.

see all

All Comments (104)

Sign In or Sign Up now to post a comment!
  • look at my video "The Son shall proclaim Immanuel"

    this video totally refutes the christian idea about this verse.

    the jewish translation(authentic) says something COMPLETELY different

  • @SargentoDPrimo Amen.

  • he was talking about Jesus is Emmanuel is saying God will come down and be with man.

    God with us.

    In other way Jesus is GOD !

    wow you not right at all lol.

    for go to the bible again.

  • he was talking about Jesus is Emmanuel is saying God will come down and be with man.

    God with us.

    In other way Jesus is GOD !

  • Jesus was never referred to as Emanuel even though the Bible says that he shall be called that...i NEVER EVER picked up on that!!!

  • 2) If mary was not a virgan then her offspring would have sin. Since Jesus was without sin (1 pet. 1:19) mary HAD to be a virgan at the birth of Jesus because the FATHER of Jesus (the Holy Ghost) was sinless

    As many have posted, the word can be "translated" either maid, young women, or virgan.

    As Jesus himself said in mat. 13:13 I will speak in parabels so those that will hear, will hear, those that don't want to know will not understand.

  • I'll not give script verse to save space unless you ask me.

    1)In the Garden of Eden, it was Eve who was decived, Adam was not. Adam ate of the fruit on purpose. The athurity/responsiblity of sin comes through the male. Every women who is born has sin because she has a sinfull father but she does not PASS on the sin (just like typhoid mary, had the desiease but did not suffer from it) it comes from the male.

  • Immanuel is 1 of his titles immanuel as you said means God with us jesus is God according to christian theology. (trinitarianism)

    if you read the verse in isaiah it says the Lord himself will give you a sign.

    then matthew says jesus was born by the power of God you see what I am saying it wouldnt be a sign if mary wasnt a virgin....would it?

Loading...
Alert icon
0 / 00Unsaved Playlist Return to active list
    1. Your queue is empty. Add videos to your queue using this button:
      or sign in to load a different list.
    Loading...Loading...Saving...
    • Clear all videos from this list
    • Learn more