Apostasia vs Departure Jim McClarty of GCA [5of5]

soon

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[masala505]

You can never have freedom until you let go of religious and/or superstitious beliefs. Both chain you to ignorance, delusion and deceit.

[HermitintheRain]

i believe this whole notion that Paul is addressing here was already hinted at in Isaiah

The righteous perisheth, and no man layeth it to heart: and merciful men are taken away, none considering that the righteous is taken away from the evil to come. Isaiah 57:1

[HermitintheRain]

we see similar experiences where the judgments of the Lord didn't commence until his people upon whom his grace and mercy was given, were carefully shielded and/or removed from the place ordained for destruction. similar parallels can also be found in the deliverance of Israel from Egypt during the days of Moses.

[HermitintheRain]

that he that withholds even now will cease to be in their midst. (the word cease would be a better clarification of the use of both the word for 'being' and 'out of' that are used in the context of the phrase which is centered on being in the 'midst' of something-that is the world of the son of perdition. everytime i read this passage, i cannot help but think of the story of Noah entering the ark or of Lot coming out of Sodom. for in both instances, as with this passage

[HermitintheRain]

..rather a device of language as established in many languages of which Greek is but one example.

what is known in this passage is that there is something-that one-which restrains the Wicked one-the son of perdition; which in the exact transliteration of the Greek indicates that whatever that "one/he" is that at the point after The Departure mentioned in verse 3: "out of midst become". a more smoother rendering in english would state...

[HermitintheRain]

@mabsootful further the use of the masculine form of the definite article points the reader to what it is in reference to; which in this instance is to the word verb written in the nominative case-κατεχων (katechon) (which is a masculine verb)-to that one ("o") that is both the source of restraint, that is 'he which withholdeth' even until now. the distinction that our minds make when we think of masculine and feminine is not to be equated with the idea of male or female, but rather a device

[HermitintheRain]

@mabsootful the use of 'he' in that passage is in accordance with the gender of the definite article "o". in greek as with latin based languages consists in the use of masculine, feminine and neuter nouns and verb phrases and words. in this instance the definite article "o" is used alone without reference to a corresponding noun which gives the meaning of the word to be: (the, this, that, one, he, she, it):

[mabsootful]

most conclusive and compelling exposition ever!! thank you ever so much for this.

still not clear about the 'he' which is taken out. why does it say he and not 'she' in referring to the church?.. please clarify, if you would.. thank you

[Mountshilol]

what?

[TreyDubzz]

for that Day will not come unless the falling away comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition, who opposes and exalts himself above all that is called God or that is worshiped, so that he sits as God in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God.

Mid-Trib at best.

The angel Michael is taken out of the way.

The church is always referred to as "her" not a "him" or "he". Our God is the God of Israel. WE are grafted into THEM. Learn the Feasts of the Lord.