The Trinity Explained (with Reason)
Uploader Comments (InspiringPhilosophy)
All Comments (223)
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@ALESHBAK in order to communicate with us God is able to take our form. if we can't understand it fully, that's understandable since we're not God. in order to get the answers to all your questions, why not ask Him? He is well able to get through if you really are wanting to hear, & will even give you Faith if you need some. if you are capable of realizing you have done some wrong things & should be sorry & need to be forgiven, you've put a foot on the right trail...
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@MrQuad4w41 Have you any idea of the usage of the Greek μείζων the New Testament? Have you noticed that this Greek word does not refer to nature or quality but rather privilege or office? Christ emptied Himself of some privileges (read Phil 2:7) in order to become a bond-servant (while He was God in the flesh at the same time), don't you notice that the Father's being "greater" applies only to the context, while Christ fullfilled the will of the Father in order to finally become a sin-offering?
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@MrQuad4w41: The Bible does nowhere EXPLICITLY say "The earth is a globe!", yet I and you believe the earth is a globe! You don't need a special "word" written down in the Bible in order to prove the reality of it. The book of Ester does not even mention the word "God", yet after reading the book, you are sure that every page of this book describes the truthful working of the one true God. Have you noticed the context and the Greek text of Joh 14:28 "the Father is greater"?
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Stupid vid! why there is no word trinity in the bible? think about it! if it were true then god would make no secret bout it! but jesus allways said the father is greater than me! read book genensis! what his spirit gods spirit is! just a tool like thing not a person!
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@ALESHBAK: Part5
Mat 10:33 - Since Christ and the Father are "one" (not one single person, but one single unity, that can not be separated; Joh 10:30) the denial of Christ is the denial of the Father also. Thus the reality of the trinity is no optional doctrine that one can deny while the other one can embrace. Notice that Joh 10:30 is in context another proof of the deity of Christ (Joh 10:1-33).
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@ALESHBAK: Part4
Therfore Christ commanded him to leave his riches in order to flee from his delusion. But as it is with all people, who love money and mammon, he refuses to OBEY the God of the law, CHRIST!. The Jews were so deeply involved in keeping traditions, that they DO NOT see that they disobey God all day long by keeping their traditions. And thatbis the whole point od this account.
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@ALESHBAK: Part3
The Jews separated the law of God from the God of the law and made the law superior than God. All this must be considered in the context of Mat 19:16. So since the rich young ruler wanted to know which good thing (i.e. which law) he should obey in order to be saved, Christ turned him to the keeping of the entirety of the law. If the rich man would have been honest, he would have recognized his bankruptcy. The man sadly thought to be accepted by God because of the richeshe had.
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@ALESHBAK: Part2
The Jews had a saying: "There is nothing good, but the law." In Mat 19:16 he asked "What good thing shall I do...". Thus he wanted to know WHICH LAW (i.e. the good) he should obey. Christ kind of corrected his high view of the law by reminding him, that God is more good than the law. The rich tested Christ by "declaring Him good" in order to see whether Christ would refuse this title given to Him. It is like "Rich man, do you understand your words? If you call Me good, I am God"
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@ALESHBAK: Part1
Joh 5:30 is a statement WITHIN a special context. Deny the context and you will not see the contextual meaning. Christ existed in the form of God, but voluntarily emptied Himself of His divine privileges in order to take the form of a bond-servant (Phil 2:5.7), and as bond-servant (yet still God) He expressed absolutely dependence upon His Father by saying "I can do nothing on My own initiative". Don't forget that Christ made Himself equal with God 12 verses before (Joh 5:18)!
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@ALESHBAK lol god sent himself to earth , since he is the purest person living. He used jesus to die for us in order to take away our sins, since we are all born as sinners due to adam, The only person who is pure enough to do this would be god himself ( jesus) , i dont know why all you question it? Jesus is GOD, you say our religion is illogical but many people would agree religion all in itself is illogical, the only thing you need in religion is FAITH.
He was God at the moment then why did he limit his powers i cant be human and say i am a dog i cant be human and act like a dog either it still dosent make sence the statment is clear i canot and yet we know god can do anything .. who is he God or the son of God or just a prophet . and who is mary ? mother of God or just a human channel or way to earth for God why choose a human yet GOD COULD HAVE JUST COME TO EARTH WITHOUT A NEED OF HUMAN
ALESHBAK 1 week ago
@ALESHBAK You need to check out my video, "The Truth about Christianity" God had to become human for important reasons in dealing with us and agape love.
InspiringPhilosophy 1 week ago
JHON 5:30
I can do nothing on my own. I judge as God tells me. Therefore, my judgment is just, because I carry out the will of the one who sent me, not my own will.
MARK 10:18
"Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good--except God alone
Matthew 10:33
- 33 but whoever denies me before men, I also will deny before my Father who is in heaven.
PLEASE explain these to me i am only searching for the truth
ALESHBAK 2 weeks ago
@ALESHBAK Jesus became fully man and could do nothing on His own, until He was the risen Lord. He accepted all the limitations of humanity when He was on earth. So He was still God, yet fully man and limited by that. When He resurrected He was no longer stuck by the limitation of humanity. I hope this helps.
InspiringPhilosophy 2 weeks ago
You say that the doctrine of the trinity begins with the belief that the true god is not fully comprehensible but the entire video is about comprehending god. You say that God must be comprised of 3 spacial dimensions to be omnipresent, but space and time has a beginning and it will have a ending. According to your logic God is dependent on space and time. I believe in one God, I believe there is non comparable unto him and he has no beginning or ending, can anyone fully comprehend that?
nurghak 3 weeks ago
@nurghak I said God must be greater than 3 spatial dimensions. Space is defined as something 3D. Anything 4D or above is not defined by space, it's in the dictionary. You're also taking those verse out of context. In Mark 7:7, Jesus is quoting Isaiah & is speaking about a prophecy Isaiah made about the pharisees. In Cor 14:33, Paul is talking about tongues in the church. This isn't proof because the verses you are quoting are out of context. Read the full passage surrounding each verse.
InspiringPhilosophy 2 weeks ago