Also the 1769 text kept the Apocrypha, with only margin references to apocryphal books removed. This brings up another issue: If the translators of the AV1611 were inspired, why did they include margin references to apocryphal books throughout the Bible?
The 1769 text differs from the 1611 text in around 24,000 places and some do alter the text. The 1611 of Genesis 2:21 "in stead" ("in that place") was updated to "instead" ("as an alternative"). The 1769 extended the italicization of "supplied" words not found in original languages. It also mistakenly "corrects" around a dozen readings because Benjamin Blayney assumed the translators of the 1611 NT had worked from the Stephanus edition of the TR, rather than Beza.
Since you yourself are using a revision, on what basis then have you decided that the KJV reading is superior? Proper study will reveal that there is nothing wrong with any of the modern translations. Furthermore, they do not restrict the meaning of the Greek to mere appearances. In fact the NASB gives the reading, "abstain from every form of evi", along with the footnote, "Or appearance", giving the reader more information and insight than the KJV offers.
If King James Onlyists who claim the AV1611 is inspired by God and perfect were honest and consistent in your claims then you would be using the AV1611 which reads, "Abstaine from all appearance of euill". But not one of you does so, you use the standard text of 1769. If the claims of King James Onlyists were true, why would you need to use a revision?
Here is just one simple example where the KJV gives us the highest standard to follow. It's one thing to avoid every form and kind of evil, that's a given. But to abstain from the very appearance of evil, takes it to up a notch. It takes it to a whole new level in holy living.
I'm sorry to inform you that Sam Gipp is not scholarship....lol...it's pathetic reasoning....and now I see why you don't understand the issues if that's what you think is sound scholarship.
I don't need to go to to the Library...I have ALL of the extant manuscripts in digital form on my laptop right here...and I'm fairly well versed in the Greek language....I understand the textual issues.
Now i know why this thread is as nonsensical is it is....
@rpavich Again, do your own research. Go to your nearest library. There are many good sources on the Bible version issue. I highly recommend that you get a copy of "The Answer Book" by Samuel C. Gipp. Just a phenomenal book! And none of the information which he gives in it has ever been refuted. This book, by the way, has been in print for over two decades!
@rpavich While there have been several editions of the KJV since 1611, there have been no revisions of it. All the "so called" changes that occurred in each edition were simply spelling and typographical (type style) changes, as well as font changes. Most of these spelling changes were integrated into the 1762 and 1769 editions. And these changes did not at all, change the meaning of the text.
@177Jeremiah7
Also the 1769 text kept the Apocrypha, with only margin references to apocryphal books removed. This brings up another issue: If the translators of the AV1611 were inspired, why did they include margin references to apocryphal books throughout the Bible?
Keruaran 7 months ago
@177Jeremiah7
The 1769 text differs from the 1611 text in around 24,000 places and some do alter the text. The 1611 of Genesis 2:21 "in stead" ("in that place") was updated to "instead" ("as an alternative"). The 1769 extended the italicization of "supplied" words not found in original languages. It also mistakenly "corrects" around a dozen readings because Benjamin Blayney assumed the translators of the 1611 NT had worked from the Stephanus edition of the TR, rather than Beza.
Keruaran 7 months ago
@177Jeremiah7
Since you yourself are using a revision, on what basis then have you decided that the KJV reading is superior? Proper study will reveal that there is nothing wrong with any of the modern translations. Furthermore, they do not restrict the meaning of the Greek to mere appearances. In fact the NASB gives the reading, "abstain from every form of evi", along with the footnote, "Or appearance", giving the reader more information and insight than the KJV offers.
Keruaran 7 months ago
@177Jeremiah7
If King James Onlyists who claim the AV1611 is inspired by God and perfect were honest and consistent in your claims then you would be using the AV1611 which reads, "Abstaine from all appearance of euill". But not one of you does so, you use the standard text of 1769. If the claims of King James Onlyists were true, why would you need to use a revision?
Keruaran 7 months ago
1 Thessalonians 5:22
Abstain from all appearance of evil. (KJV)
Avoid every kind of evil. (NIV)
Abstain from every form of evil. (ESV)
Keep away from every kind of evil. (ISV)
Here is just one simple example where the KJV gives us the highest standard to follow. It's one thing to avoid every form and kind of evil, that's a given. But to abstain from the very appearance of evil, takes it to up a notch. It takes it to a whole new level in holy living.
177Jeremiah7 7 months ago
@177Jeremiah7
I'm sorry to inform you that Sam Gipp is not scholarship....lol...it's pathetic reasoning....and now I see why you don't understand the issues if that's what you think is sound scholarship.
I don't need to go to to the Library...I have ALL of the extant manuscripts in digital form on my laptop right here...and I'm fairly well versed in the Greek language....I understand the textual issues.
Now i know why this thread is as nonsensical is it is....
I'm signing off for good now..
rpavich 7 months ago
@rpavich Again, do your own research. Go to your nearest library. There are many good sources on the Bible version issue. I highly recommend that you get a copy of "The Answer Book" by Samuel C. Gipp. Just a phenomenal book! And none of the information which he gives in it has ever been refuted. This book, by the way, has been in print for over two decades!
177Jeremiah7 7 months ago
@177Jeremiah7
How could any English version be perfect and have spelling errors or otherwise????
The problem is that IF this is PERFECT...then I must be able to trust it....
(1) 1611, Great "He" Bible, (Ruth 3:15, "and he went into the city.")
(2) 1611, Great "She" Bible, (Ruth 3:15), "and she went into the city.")
OR
1711, "Profit" Bible, (Isa. 57:12, "shall profit" instead of "shall not profit.")
How in the world can I trust the KJV that I have in my possession now????
rpavich 7 months ago
@177Jeremiah7
You CANNOT be serious...."removes the confusion"....that's rich.....
The issue is found between the Greek word: απιστιαν and ὀλιγοπιστία. ....why is this some sort of issue?
both words overlap in meaning....
It makes perfect sense; Jesus is telling them that their faith is even more miniscule than the smallest of faiths....
You're not making sense.
I hope you know that you aren't surprising me. I'm aware of all of the textual difference between the manuscripts....
rpavich 7 months ago
@rpavich While there have been several editions of the KJV since 1611, there have been no revisions of it. All the "so called" changes that occurred in each edition were simply spelling and typographical (type style) changes, as well as font changes. Most of these spelling changes were integrated into the 1762 and 1769 editions. And these changes did not at all, change the meaning of the text.
177Jeremiah7 7 months ago