Orthodoxy & the Papacy
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@PapalSoldier Rome was involved in certain church matters because Rome was arbitrator. Rome had no direct authority in the East but for political ambitions Rome began to assert their authority over jurisdictions in the West.
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@trueorthodoxfaith If Papal infallibility was "invented" in 1870 then The Holy Trinity was invented in 325, The Theotokos was invented in 431, The 2 Natures of Christ in One Divine Person was invented in 451 ETC.. Your position is a complete joke, if all bishops are equal why aren't you arian? if all bishops are equal why did Theodoret Bishop of Cyrus in Syria go to Pope Leo when he was deposed? Why did the Corinthians write to Pope Clement instead of St.John The Apostle in the 1st Century?
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@trueorthodoxfaith No such thing as head of the church in Constantinople, Alexandria, Antioch, ETC... ALL bishops are subject to The Pope as Pope Gregory stated. Michael C, is the one that went against The Chair which cannot be judged. Research the early church.
And like i said before if you want to blame the 1204 sacking(which happened because of what the Greeks did in 1182) for "weakening" your empire. Then your empire never existed.
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@PapalSoldier What is your point? You are under total false pretenses that papal infallibility always existed in the church. The supreme episcopal jurisdiction of the pope is a claim that is foreign to the ancient church. This infallibility only became a Latin doctrine at the Vatican I, 1870. You ignore my previous posts concerning this and the political motives behind it. You are confusing "head of the church", with this infallibility doctrine.
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@PapalSoldier Your ignorance on history shows. The Crusades weakened the Byzantine Empire by destroying most of the infrastructure and then dividing up Asia Minor into principalities. This ruined the unity of the Empire. This made it easier for the Turks to invade.
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@PapalSoldier Are you retarded. What the hell do you think "excommunicating Michael Cerularius" means? He was the head of the church in Constantinople. The bull of excommunication was certainly not against one individual but the entire church. Rome took the first step in separating themselves from the true faith, Orthodoxy.
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@Kekaumenos1078 There are three requirements for infallibility to be invoked:
1. The pronouncement must be made by the official successor to Peter.
2. The subject matter must be in the area of faith and morals.
3. The Pope must be speaking Ex Cathedra (from the chair) of Peter, and must be intending to proclaim a doctrine that binds the ENTIRE Church to assent.
If any one of the above 3 requirements is missing, the papal declaration is not considered to be an infallible doctrine.
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@Kekaumenos1078 Pope Leo's Tome to Flavian.
Council of Chalcedon in the year 451, the Pope's letter was read to the assemblage of bishops, and they cried with one voice: "Peter has spoken by Leo; let him be anathema who believes otherwise!"
My fault for not being specific, Infallible when Pope Leo's mentions The 2 Natures of Christ in One Divine Person.
Pope Leo(Chalcedon) and Pope Agatho(Council of Contantinople III) were both infallible, because they were BINDING on the entire Church.
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So Leo's tome is dogmatic? Then you have a problem with the immaculate conception, because in this tome he wrote: "The Lord assumed His mother's nature without her faultiness: nor in the Lord Jesus Christ, born of the Virgin's womb, does the wonderfulness of His birth make His nature unlike ours. ""
newadvent . org / fathers / 3604028 . htm
Paaaaapacy,,, what a horrendous and utterly erroneous pronunciation dude,, cmon,, get it right.
kaldbaksbotnur 4 weeks ago 3