A response to the KJV Only - Heaven vs. Heavens

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Uploaded by on Mar 19, 2009

This video is a response to bbbfohio's video "Why King James Only? Part One." It is claimed that the use of the word "heavens" in Genesis 1:1, as it is found in all the modern translations, is a lie, whereas only the King James Version is accurate with its use of the word "heaven."

Also see my Challenge to KJVonlyers at
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sFaLQEsLq4M

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  • John Wycliffe (1382) translated the Latin Vulgate into 14th Century English and made the same mistake. Heaven in Chapter 1 and Heavens in Chapter 2.

    Or did the translators of the Vulgate make the mistake?

    The Sir Lancelot C. L. Brenton 1851 English Translation of the Greek Septuagint, again the same mistake.

    So is the Septuagint also wrong? I don't read Greek but maybe someone can tell me.

    Did the KJV translators use the Septuagint or the Hebrew text?

  • @MrAlanNZ The sad truth is that most modern English translations of the Bible, including the kjv, rely more heavily on the Greek Septuagint than the Hebrew text. The reason is that Hebrew is not only a different language, but a completely different philosophy. Since English is a Greco-Roman language and philosophy, the translators are more comfortable and familiar with the Greek. The Hebrew is just to foreign for them.

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  • @contiricci The whole KJV only debate is in my opinion a very serious issue as it requires its followers to ignore historical and archeological evidence and instead take the KJV translation at face value. The problem is that the KJV translation is inaccurate and causes serious error in Biblical interpretation.

  • @contiricci You still didn't provide me any evidence in your defense. Please provide me examples to defend your position and show how I am wrong. Thank you.

  • @contiricci You claim this is misleading, but you didn't provide any evidence to the contrary. You are correct that a plural noun can grammatically be used as a singular and this is common with the name Elohiym, but I have never seen Shamayim used in this way. Do you have an example you can share to prove your point?

  • @LVCIVSTVLLIVSATELLVS Because the Greek-speaking Jews certainly would have known about the Greek Pantheon, due to Hellenization, and Ouranos is the Sky-God, but later became synonymous with Sky/heaven. Because in Greek, it was associated with one divinity, it would not culturally make sense to have multiple heavens. This would not, however, apply to Roman thought, since there was never a god named Caelus, so Jerome could get more abstract with the number of heavens.

  • I guess it's of Theological significance. The Jews in Alexandria transtated Shamayim into the Greek Ouranos, which is singular in Greek in both cases. However, Jerome, when translating it into Latin used Caelus (singular) for the former, and Caeli (plural) for the latter. I'm guessing the singular form of heaven in Hebrew was the name of a Canaanite God, so the author of the Hebrew wanted to exclude it. In Greek thought, however, the concept of heavens would be confusing.

  • @myshoesgofast The hebrew word in Gen 11:4 is shamayim, which literally means 'sky' and you can translate it as sky, skies, heaven or heavens. just recognize that this hebrew word is a plural noun, but used in a singular sense, always. on my website FAQs is a an article 'is Strong's reliable,' check that out, it might help.

  • @ancienthebreworg

    Gen 11:4 was it heaven or heavens? I am in a month or so going to be learning Hebrew, but I have been warned that the "new" edition of strong's concordance is not a good source. Do you have an opinion on this?

  • @myshoesgofast God tell Moses many things to write down, but God did not give Moses Gen 1 to Deut 34, and I don't think Moses wrote all of Gen 1 to Deut 34. I accept the Documentary Hypothesis. Yes, I translate word for word, but my translation is accompanied with a Dictionary that provides the alternate meanings from different times. Gen 11:4 - the tower reached to the sky/skies. Yes, I believe in God.

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