Proof by induction FP1 further pure mathematics
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That's cool! *w*
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really good explanation thank you so so very much
and btw for future viewers the actual mathematics starts at 2:55
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Cheers mate very helpful!
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what i don't get is how does that show it's true for all integers? wouldn't it just show that it's true for n>=1?
(do you need an extra step to show it for negative numbers or is what you did there enough?)
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Thanks a lot for uploading this
Theangelofa 1 year ago 8
@khajiit92 once he uses an abstract term to represent an integer, say x.. to represent any random integer, and he proves it works for that arbitrary integer.. then it proves correct for all integers.. since he choose a random term
Willy2717barca 5 months ago