Complex Numbers de Moivre's theorem
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All Comments (55)
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@eckz59 Actually he is pronouncing it correctly, 'theta', it comes from the greek alphabet. Being greek myself, i know how its pronounced.
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"theta" ahhaha lol
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Well it may be an accent thing but if you want to be "correct" about it then it's definitely "th" not "f", which is considered quite lazy.
I'm not sure what you mean by F/Thita though. Is that like Theeta (like sheep) or Thitta (like hit)? Because it's definitely the former.
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@AtheistSense Well I live in the UK at the moment that's how my teachers pronounced it, either 'Fita' or 'Thita'. Even, in Nigeria where I was born, they called it 'Tita', that's how I was taught. Correct me if I'm wrong
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@biggsleezy ... no it isn't.
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@abhishekutkarsh because they are the exactly the same. They give both the exact same values... for e.g
cos(5pi/2) is the same as cos(-5pi/2).
God Bless!
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how did Cos(-nQ) became cos(nQ) but not -cos(nQ) .
Is their any rule i missed , can anyone tell me according to which rule cos(-nQ) becomes cos(nQ) .
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@eckz59 In the UK, it's 'Fita'
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@Zenome how is that funny you fuckhead? go be racist somewhere else.
yeah its actually pronounced "thata" with a LONG a sound in between the h and the t. but who cares, this guy is really passionate about math and giving free lectures. thanks donylee
eckz59 3 years ago 14
These viedos are fantastic! Any chance that you will put them on iTunes University so I can put them on my iPod?
physgirl 2 years ago 7