There's no such thing as Universally Preferable Behaviour
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People universally prefer that nothing is done to their bodies or property against their consent, I know that.
That also means people universally prefer not to be punished for a crime against their consent. Otherwise it would not be against their consent. Does that mean it is immoral to punish people for a crime?
I don't think so; it tells us nothing about the ethics of a certain action, only that people universally prefer what they prefer.
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Objective basically means we rule out subjective interpretation, i.e. human observers. Objective (i.e. scientific) criterion for a definition might be, "the moon has shape & location, thus EXISTS". We can then use 'exist' objectively, because rocks hopefully don't need human observers (or opinions, measurements, proofs, tests, faith, predictions or belief) to exist! Hopefully if we observe a thing it PRE-exists BY DEFINITION! The question is WHY. We can define words objectively using our reason.
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Good review. I think it's also worth noting that logic is entirely definitional, i.e. based upon agreed assumptions & must resolve to these base assumptions (axioms). As you noted, it's tautologous. Logic is NOT objective. Logic is based on INTERNAL consistency & so remains subjective; i.e. requiring human observation / agreed definitions. 'Truth' is now used as a flaky pseudo-religious term, but relates at best to axiom resolution. 5+5=10 may be provEN (verb) TRUE in base 10. Not so in base 3!
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@gdmk1000 And attacking UPB might be fun, but it's like shooting dead ducks who want to die anyway.
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Hoppe is completely value free, pure praxeology, see my introduction at:
argumentationethics[.]wordpres
s[.]com/2011/12/25/argumentati on-ethics/ (do have a look as iv'e written it in light of common misconceptioins)
I share your belief for natural-rights type arguments.
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but u cant correct somebody without a reference to a universal otherwise it would be like correcting someone on his taste of icecream.
so in that moment u correct somebody it must be to a universal (upb).
so in that moment u correct stef its not about a subjective opinion like taste it should be about a universal.otherwise it makes no sense to correct him.
its also important to check the theory and not instances.
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@DoctorCapitalist i would say its more like this: u cant have 2 people rape each other at the same time. like 2 people cant murder each other at the same time thats an objective truth like a stone cant go up and doen at the same time. u cant correct preferences like music taste,( or beeing on time) u can correct things wich are rational and testable like 3+3=7 (or rape) so a moral has to be universal beeing on time is just preferable
Universally Preferable Behaviour does exist. It's universally preferable to not have people do things to your body against your consent/will.
You can't say "Yeah well what if someone doesn't mind having stuff done to them against their will? Checkmate." because that is a self refuting statement, since not minding something shows will.
DoctorCapitalist 2 months ago 3
@DoctorCapitalist "It's universally preferable to not have people do things to your body against your consent/will."
I think you've found a slightly less clear way of saying 'people always prefer not to have things happen that they don't prefer'. This doesn't help us.
Is it universally preferable not _to do_ something to a persons body against their will? I'd say obviously not.
bitbutter 2 months ago
@bitbutter A slightly more concise way of phrasing your tautology: "People universally prefer those things that they prefer". I'd agree with that.
bitbutter 2 months ago