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[DonaldDHightower]

Amen! Pastor John tell the truth and shame the devil!

[FLEASY2323]

Sorry for the long delay. Jamie072 This is an issue of what one means by Authoritative. If one is saying a woman can not share the word of God is somewhat different than Authoritative speaking. A woman can not speak in Authority over men. That word is kerusso

in greek. It is a heralder, the person speaks what the king is to relay to the community, dig this not just husband and wife, but the community. How can they hear, to the Jew first? then the Greek? via female. thats a contradition.

[authentic76]

Oh, and one more thing. You can't compare Luke 18:1 to 1 Timothy 2:11. They are two totally different subjects, one dealing only with prayer and the other RESTRICTING women to teach or hold authority over the man.

Peace be to you

[authentic76]

...So in this simple parable, Jesus is showing his disciples that if an unrightous judge could find a way to answer someone's persistant request, then what do you expect of our loving Father in heaven... But notice that even though he said "MEN ought always to pray, and not to faint" that the widow in the parable he gave was a WOMAN..Therefore he wasn't placing any restriction on what gender should or should not pray.. I hope this made things clearer for you.

[authentic76]

Its like if I was speaking to some of my fellow brothers and I say "Fellas we need to get our act together and live right". Of course i'm not saying that women aren't to like-wise get themselves together and live right, but i'm just relating to the people that i'm speaking to at the time...With that said, the story of the parable speaks about an unrightous judge who refused to give a widow protection from her advesary. But because of her continual plee to him, he finally granted her protection.

[authentic76]

Sure, I'm sure that I was on point with my comment, for I know what you are getting at. However, to answer you question directly, I say that your retorical question is off base, let me tell you why. In referring to your passage Luke 18:1-8, he is giving a parable about the necessity of prayer. First, lets establish his audience, his audience is his disciples, who are all MEN. Therefore, it would be appropriate for him to instruct them saying "men ought always to pray, and not to faint"...

[Jamie072]

authentic76, Did you answer my question? It seems like you are just rambling.

[authentic76]

....of the household, and the saints? In other words he's the head at home, but then falls to the tail in church. Makes no sense. Now with that said lets read this again. 1 Tim 2:11-14 "Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression". Sounds pretty straight forward to me.

[authentic76]

you're missing the context Jamie. The reason why the scriptures say that "A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife.." so on and so forth. Is because the Church setting is supposed to reflect the home life. If he is the head of his home (which he should be) and it is not unruly, then he can properly lead and guide the saints in the church setting. On the flip side if the man is the head of the home, then how can his wife (if she's a pastor) rule over him, the rest....

[Jamie072]

I have a question for Pastor Coleman. I have been trying to get this resolved. The bible does not use the words "a woman cannot preach". Pastor Coleman says he doesn't believe a women can preach because the bible says" "If a man desire the office of a bishop, he desires a good work. A bishop then must be blameless, the husband of one wife.." and since a woman can't have a wife.

The bible also says "men ought always to pray, and not to faint" so does that mean women should not pray???