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@Waldvogel91 but as for Anglosaxon music, he's right.
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@rotcbrad pretty much yes.
But despite what he says, there was musical notation before the 9th Century.
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@Waldvogel91 One could just about fill the Grand Canyon with the knowledge that was possessed by the ancient Greeks that had become lost to the western world by the time of Beowulf's creation.
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^he's wrong about there not being musical notation at this time. The Ancient Greeks had it. One does not need to look far...
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I like that he compares it to a song, rather than just learning words and reciting them.
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He´s no actor :-))) He´s musician.
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Very antique and typical for early Indo-European people, and typical of other non Indo-European people as well.
MaBu888 3 years ago 5
@Waldvogel91 he said "for European music" and by "Europe" he obviously meant what was to become Western Europe.
revilo178 10 months ago