GMAT: Data Sufficiency 36
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GMAT: Data Sufficiency 37by khanacademy3,154 views- 9:31
GMAT: Data Sufficiency 35by khanacademy3,639 views
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GMAT: Data Sufficiency 38by khanacademy2,922 views
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GMAT Data Sufficiency 21 (correction)by khanacademy3,540 views
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GMAT: Data Sufficiency 14by khanacademy4,319 views
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GMAT: Data Sufficiency 13by khanacademy4,450 views
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GMAT: Data Sufficiency 15by khanacademy4,389 views
Whoops, I just noticed that GMAT: Data Sufficiency 36 is flipped with GMAT: Data Sufficiency 35.
bynddrvn5 1 year ago
I think (x-y)/(x+y)>1 cannot be written as (x-y)>(x+y) unless we know the sign
abhishake332 1 year ago
agree with most recent commenter, went down that road of simplifying and realized you can't do that without knowing the sign. great job with the rest of the problems though.
massiveBrains 2 years ago
#139 That's because you cannot simplify (x-y)/(x+y)> 1 to x-y>x+y. And that's because you don't know the sign of x+y. If it is negative the inequality sign is changing too. If you replace x = 2 and y = -3 which satisfies both conditions you will get -5 which is NOT greater than 1.
codrutoctavian 2 years ago
Hi Sal, I was just checking problem 139 and found your response very logical, however, in the GMAT guide it shows letter "E" as the right answer. Could you explain why, please?
Thanks.
mramirezhsatx 3 years ago
very helpful! Thanks!
redsoxjock 3 years ago