When Jesus Became God

The pagan emperor Constantine calls the Council of Nicea in order to determine, among other things, if Jesus is
God, Man or some combination thereof.

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[pretoshohmoofc]

@DaddyOD13 In the Septuagint (The Greek Old Testament) in Isaiah 43:10 both "Ho Theos" and "Theos" are present in the verse. Same as John 1:1.

γένεσθέ μοι μάρτυρες, κἀγὼ μάρτυς, λέγει κύριος **ὁ θεός**, καὶ ὁ παῖς, ὃν ἐξελεξάμην, ἵνα γνῶτε καὶ πιστεύσητε καὶ συνῆτε ὅτι >>ἐγώ εἰμι, ἔμπροσθέν μου οὐκ ἐγένετο ἄλλος **θεὸς**<< καὶ μετ᾿ ἐμὲ οὐκ ἔσται·

In fact, in the second clause, it reads." I AM, (ego eimi) and there is no god beside me."



[pretoshohmoofc]

@DaddyOD13 I'm only Bible based,

[pretoshohmoofc]

@DaddyOD13 One more thing, you never answered my question regarding Isaiah 43:10 and John 1:1. How can Jesus be "a god" beside The God being the savior, if Isaiah 43:10 tells us that this is not true?

[pretoshohmoofc]

@DaddyOD13 Jesus was given authority by the Father which is a Trinitarian belief. We call this the Economic Trinity. The Ontological Trinity means that they are equal by nature, the Economic Trinity is the headship within this. Just like a man and his wife. She is equal to him by nature, but he is still the head over her.

1 Cor 11:3

"...man is the head of a woman, and God is the head of Christ.'

If Jesus did not possess the same nature as the Father, this comparison can not work.

[pretoshohmoofc]

@DaddyOD13 5) In Greek & Aramaic, "God" & "god" are two different words.

That is incorrect. the Greek word for God is "Theos." Jesus is both called "Ho theos-The God" in John 20:28 and "Theos-God" in John 1:1. In Hebrew there are a few names for God one being, "El" or "Elohim."

[pretoshohmoofc]

@pretoshohmoofc Part II

The full quote from Psalms 82:6 is talking about Judges who judge falsely. that and I quote: Vs 1 "he judges in the midst of the rulers. (Elohim) How long will you judge unjustly? Vs 7 "Nevertheliss you will die like men..."

So much for them being gods.

[pretoshohmoofc]

@DaddyOD13 Who is the polytheist now? Men are called "gods" in Ps 82.6. Jesus himself quotes this in John 10:34. Here is the problem, John 10:34 may be quoting from Psalms 82:6 but Jesus said in Jn 10:34 "Has it not been written in your law". Psalms is not a book of the Law, but Deuteronomy IS. The Psalms quote is coming from Deut 19:17 where these judges (the subject of Ps 82:6) are not called "gods" but "YHWHs". "shall stand before YHWH before the priests and the judges." Is man YHWH?

[pretoshohmoofc]

@DaddyOD13 In unity under law, yes

Yes, you got it. you yourself said, "In unity under law, yes"

Trinity is a companation of two words.

Tri- which means 3.

and Unity. Drop the U, and what do you Get?

Tri_nity.

You yourself just aknowledged the Trinity is action.

[DaddyOD13]

@pretoshohmoofc I meant "not inculcated" on #2.

[DaddyOD13]

@pretoshohmoofc

My question's valid. Does the Bible say worship Gods?

It's the crux of the matter.

A loaded question is; show the word "trinity" in the Bible.

1) Jesus said: "…I am he" (The Christ) John 4.25.

Saying "They're not his words" is cunning. 2 Co 4.2.

2) Jesus as Christ is clearly shown. The trinity's obscure dogma.

I've met no one, inculcated with dogma, who believes in a Biblical, triune god.