Jesus and Messianic Prophecy: A Third Response to Geoasher023

Another rebuttal.

Category:

Education

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• Capture
• 20111106

[pana376]

you will never see a pussy in your life geek

[KabaneTheChristian]

@pana376

<3

[Pilgrim1411]

@BraidedLily, Vetus Ύestamentum in Novo patet. [The Old Testament extends into the New]. And patet means precisely: is revealed, disclosed, fulfilled. The Church is the true Israel, kata pneuma. Modern apostate Jews have no right to interpret the Bible.

[KRU78]

Enjoyed the truths and structure, i only hope that the "rabbi" is interested in seeking the harmony of the scriptures in truth rather than only wanting to be heard (debate/prosthelytizing) for at least three of the verses u used to document devine judgement the term shama is used! Keep praising Hashem in spirit and truth KabaneTheChristian.

[BraidedLily]

No one is obligated to accept the writings of the Talmud as authoritative in the way implied by the beginning of this video. I do not accept your segue from discussing Jews who, as you explain it, are cut off from the covenant to Gentiles who become part of the covenant by accepting Jesus. Christians have no proof that faith in Jesus is necessary for anyone, Jew or Gentile, to be part of the covenant or that Jews, as a group, are cut off as a people which seems implied by your video.

[psandbergnz]

@KabaneTheChristian, Isaiah 5:13 does not necessarily exemplify the "prophetic perfect" tense. Assuming it is truly written in the past tense (to the shame of my NIV!), there is no sound reason to believe that it predates the events in chapter 7, i.e. that there is a chronological order there. Chapter 7 does not appear to be a continuation of events from the preceding chapters; it's very different in character. Chapter 5 may be a lament of past history by Isaiah.

But you COULD be right!

[KabaneTheChristian]

@psandbergnz

One could actually read Isaiah 42:6 as alluding to the inclusion of the Gentiles into the people of Israel. Thus, "a covenant for the people, a light for the Gentiles." I don't think the distinction is nearly as clear as you make it out to be.

I would agree in part. Salvation in the Hebrew Bible has a much wider range of meanings than it does in the Greek New Testament.

[psandbergnz]

@KabaneTheChristian, I will review some of the references you have made, and possibly respond tomorrow. Good ngiht.

[psandbergnz]

@KabaneTheChristian, but why does Isaiah appear to make a clear distinction between the people of the covenant and a "light to the Gentiles" in 42:6. You don't seem to have the internal evidence you need to make your point. Isaiah doesn't say "a covenant for the people and the Gentiles", You are basing your case on too many subjective opinions.

"Salvation" in Isaiah (as a Hebrew word) does not necessarily have the same connotation as the Greek word used in the N.T,