Panhard EBR
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" Regardless " You have no objectivity in this case and you refuse to acknowledge the truth and historical facts.
- "The small groups of Vikings that settled there adopted the language, religion and culture of the French majority. After a generation or two, the Normans were indistinguishable from the French".
Encyclopaedia Britannica
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@jeffkodiac Regardless, it was a Norman invasion and a Norman victory.
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@jeffkodiac "in principle"
"in practice"
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The adaptability of the Scandinavian, always a marked characteristic of this people, nowhere showed itself more quickly. Readily adopting the ideas and customs of those among whom he came to live, the Norman had soon absorbed the most important elements of French civilization .In the eleventh century, at the time of the Norman Conquest, the civilization of Normandy was essentially French .
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False the the Duke of Normandy was still a vassal of the King of France in 1066 everybody knows it except you apparently.
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@jeffkodiac Rollo abrogated the treaty the moment that king died. Abrogation ran in the family.
It wasn't a French-Norman victory, it was a Norman victory. For it to have been French it would have to have been French-led. Thus, because the King of France didn't invade it wasn't a French victory, it was a Norman victory because the Duke of Normandy invaded.
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That's why William asked the help of his suzerain the King of France Henri 1er at the Battle of Vals les Dunes to defeat his ennemies , saying that if Norman barons attacking his vassal as they attacked the king of France.
You are wrong with the traité de Saint-Clair-sur-Epte 911 Rollo became the vassal of the king of France . Do you happen to read what I write, I never said that the King of France had invaded England, I say that Hastings was a French -Norman victory .
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@jeffkodiac Right, that's why the King of France twice tried to invade Normandy and was twice defeated by William the Bastard. And why William's great-great-great grandfather, Rollo of Normandy, expanded the Norman lands through conquest, because he was a loyal vassal.
The Duke of Normandy did not give his allegiance to the King of France and the King of France did not invade England in 1066. The Duke of Normandy did.
The Normans were to Normandy what the Danes were to the Danelaw.
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Of course the duke of Normandy was the vassal of the king of France . What you say is a nonsense the Viking settled in France in the begining of the 9th century and Scotland was never been in England .
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@jeffkodiac The Duke of Normandy was not a vassal of the King of France. Normandy did not owe allegiance or tribute/tax to Paris. Thus Normandy was not French, it was Norman.
You wanna tell the Scots that they're English?
Yes, really funny. And where was US troops when french army fight nazi army and retreat in 1940? And I remembered US soldiers in retreat in Vietnam. And you, do you remember american disaster in Vietnam or Somalie. Salutation from France.
fatalcreusois 2 years ago 30
@Heimrik01 Wrong. France has never successfully invaded Britain. William the Bastard/William the Conqueror was Duke of Normandy, not King of France. After he became King of England (not Britain) he owed no fealty to the King of France, yet he still retained his Norman Duchy. He, like most Norman nobles, and his opponent Alfred the Great, like English nobles at the time were descended from Saxons.
Prod1Kh 5 months ago 3