The Beast of Revelation (14 of 25) Trampling of Jerusalem?

Question:- In Revelation 11, the Gentiles are given the power to trample the city of Jerusalem under foot for 42 months. When does this occur?

(1) This refers to the siege of Jerusalem from Spring AD 67 to the fall of the Temple in Sept 70. Vespasian enters the Land in Spring 67, but Jerusalem does not fall until 70.

(2) It clearly refers to the Jewish temple which existed when John wrote, and which was the subject of Jesus' Olivet Discourse and many of his parables.

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[joroma77]

Berith-ish kingdom from Arthur up to around 1600-1700, was it the millennial reign under Christ? Has the extent of the dark ages been grossly exaggerated, by up to 600 years? Was Satan released shortly after the King James Bible was published? Is the population explosion the 2nd resurrection? Is Satan currently deceiving the nations worldwide? This is one tough puzzle! 

[Parture]

There is no killing of people in the first half of the Tribulation, not even in the 5th trumpet of the Tribulation which takes place for 5 months after the middle of the Tribulation.

[Dabayare]

Have you guys ever wondered this "Temple" to have been nothing but a mud hut. Why give so much credit to people who produced nothing of architectural significance? If they claim to have built the Pyramids, why is there no pyramids near were Jewish people are known to have lived?

[lordrothchild21]

where do we fit in now. And what about eternity and how will we live. Does the bible speak of these things

[1stResurrection]

I'm not convinced that 1948 is connected to Mt. 24. As to the prophecy of Isaiah 65, I would have to say since the context is the new heavens and the new earth vs 20 would have to speak of a time after the return of Christ after the first resurrection when the saints will pragmatically rule the earth as kings and priests under Jesus Christ the eternal king/priest after the order of Melchisedec. This view does not prevent progress towards that end, but ultimately the kingdom is Christ's not man's

[jcr4runner]

A "thousand generations" is 40,000 years.

If this is a literal "thousand generations," the "millennium" cannot be a literal 100 years, nor can "this generation" in Mt. 24 refer to 1948.

What do you make of the following, does it occur prior to Christ's return or after?

"No longer will there be ... an old man who does not live out his days; For the youth will die at the age of one hundred. And the one who does not reach the age of one hundred will be thought accursed."

- Isaiah 65:20

[1stResurrection]

The ultimate fulfillment is when the seed of Christ is as inumberable as the sand of the sea and as the stars of heaven. My point though was that the prophecy to Abraham was "audience relevant" but it hass been fulfilled on several levels and is still being fulfilled unto the completion of the mystery of Christ. OBTH: I really appreciate your scholarship. Although I'm poking and probing, I mean no disrespect. I'm only searching for truth. If it's under one of these rocks, I'll find it. Thanks.

[jcr4runner]

So do you agree that this covenant has been fulfilled literally?

[1stResurrection]

When God spoke to Abraham of his seed, the relevant audience was Abraham and later Sarah. Their first hope of fulfillment was Isaac. Abraham's extened hope was Israel and ultimate hope was Christ (Gal. 3:16). Many levels. "Be ye mindful always of his covenant; the word which he commanded to a thousand generations; Even of the covenant which he made with Abraham, and of his oath unto Isaac; And hath confirmed the same to Jacob for a law, and to Israel for an everlasting covenant." I Chr 16:15-17

[jcr4runner]

God gave specific time parameters to John -- "the time is near."

Jesus gave them -- "THIS generation shall not pass away."

But to Abraham, God gave the promise to "a thousand generations" -- not just to Isaac.

So that is the difference -- the time indicators and the audience relevance.