@Victornotvictim77 Because the original letter used the word for "him" and not the word for Christ. The NIV is a direct translation in this case. The KJV used the word Christ for clarification.
Whilst the NIV has fewer words that the King James, the King James is a translation of texts with about 340,000 fewer words. I don't criticize the KJV on this basis, just the word count argument against the NIV. - its misleading
The problem that people have with thinking like this, other languages translating the bible don't use Elizabethan English. There are in the original languages no, thees, thous, and many of the prepositions that exist in Elizabethan English. And if anyone today understands it, it is because of Shakespeare that they do. If the KJV is the "only inspired word of God," is everyone who doesn't use it going to Hell? I seriously doubt that anyone is going to an imaginary place of punishment.
The idea that the NIV was translated from older text, therefore it is better, is laughable. Those text are from Alexandria, where they were known to change the text in order to destroy the word of God! But that isn't even what a true believer has to know in order to discredit the NIV. The fact that Jesus Christ was prophesied to be born of a virgin as a sign of being the Son of God, is changed to Jesus being born of a young maiden in the niv, is enough to raise a red flag.
Good to know someone else out there knows the truth that Jesus read the KJV too.
ttty2t1j3 2 months ago
@Victornotvictim77 Because the original letter used the word for "him" and not the word for Christ. The NIV is a direct translation in this case. The KJV used the word Christ for clarification.
Triundi 3 months ago
Whilst the NIV has fewer words that the King James, the King James is a translation of texts with about 340,000 fewer words. I don't criticize the KJV on this basis, just the word count argument against the NIV. - its misleading
Brightfame73 5 months ago
"For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form" ( Colossians 2:9 NIV).
"For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily" (Colossians 2:9 KJV).
Why did the KJV take out "Christ?"
Victornotvictim77 6 months ago
Transgressors... Being numbered with "them" and being crucified between a couple of "them" are not the same thing.
What I see here is theater.
blardosplats 6 months ago
The problem that people have with thinking like this, other languages translating the bible don't use Elizabethan English. There are in the original languages no, thees, thous, and many of the prepositions that exist in Elizabethan English. And if anyone today understands it, it is because of Shakespeare that they do. If the KJV is the "only inspired word of God," is everyone who doesn't use it going to Hell? I seriously doubt that anyone is going to an imaginary place of punishment.
journeyer58 6 months ago
The idea that the NIV was translated from older text, therefore it is better, is laughable. Those text are from Alexandria, where they were known to change the text in order to destroy the word of God! But that isn't even what a true believer has to know in order to discredit the NIV. The fact that Jesus Christ was prophesied to be born of a virgin as a sign of being the Son of God, is changed to Jesus being born of a young maiden in the niv, is enough to raise a red flag.
VincentRSpicer 7 months ago 2