Early Jewish and Christian Monotheism
Uploader Comments (scripturaltruths)
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Dave Your commentary on Ex 7:1 was excellent. I liked the way you demonstrated how in the Hebrew "as" is not in that verse like in the NASB causing that verse to actually say "I make you God/god"
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Very politely and well spoken. The structure of this video was well put together as well. Thank you. Just for clarification. Since Jehovah would be identifed as the True God and those he appoints would rightfully be considered gods as well though not fale gods. Would the term false god refer to all whom are gods that Jehovah did not appoint or approve of or just to Idols? For example. Satan is called the god of the world. Would he be considered a false god just as Idols are?
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All Comments (13)
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Thanks for your scripture: Just to remind "Hear, Yisrael, the Lord our God , the Lord is One", if "Jesus" also being God as well, how can you able to Love each of them with all your heart and all your soul and all your mind at the same time? Perhaps each believers should split themselves into two to serve each of them equally... Sorry, I rather accept the identity of God that HE said....and Good job and Shalom!
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Yes, indeed, but the churches do identify Jesus with Jehovah, and thus they do not remain within he boundaries of Jewish-NT monotheism. Jesus in Scripture is Son of God, and the definition of Son of God is admirably provided by Luke 1:35. John of course echoes the NT unitarian view when he records Jesus as saying "the Father is the only one who is truly God."
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I would say yes, all whom Jehovah did not setup that way would be false gods. With Satan being the god of this world he is probably best considered a false god because he has set himself up in place of the Almighty, a position he is entirely unable to fulfill. He indeed rules the world (1J 5:19), but this does not mean he can successfully fulfill the position he has placed himself in.
But are these "God" by nature? (Gal 4:8)
October31st1517 5 months ago
@October31st1517 What is a god by nature vs one who isn't? The pagan gods were not, for they were made of inanimate things, but when one is rightly called a god, how do you determine if they are one by nature?
scripturaltruths 5 months ago
The term "god" in Hebrew can also mean "mighty." Thus, it cannot be concluded that the term "god" in the OT is used to denote an inferior created "god", but rather a powerful being. Moreover, the term is used a very few times. In the NT it is used only once for Satan, as the "god of this world." Your video conveys the impression that Jews liberally used the term, flirting with semi-polytheism, which is not true.
Kalkas777 7 months ago
@Kalkas777 Except the LXX and Greek works as Philo substantiate my point.... You assume a unique definition for the Almighty that does not exist.
scripturaltruths 7 months ago
@Kalkas777 The term "god" in Hebrew (elohim) means certainly god, but not exclusivelly. It can mean also "mighty", "judge" etc. For instance, LXX translates the term "elohim" with "angel" in Ps 8:5. Therefore, my point still holds, namely that Jews did not flirt with semi-polytheism, and that the meaning of the term "elohim" is not *god* if applied to created beings. Moreover, there are just a few passages, and these are not sufficient for establishing your view.
Kalkas777 7 months ago
@Kalkas777 First, you are confusing translation with interpretation. The LXX's rendering of angels is not an actual translation, but an interpretation. In Psalm 82 there is no such interpretation though and it speaks plainly to my point. It only takes over passage to establish a truth and this one does it... Not to mention all the others.
scripturaltruths 7 months ago