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Fermat's Last Theorem (Complete)

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Uploaded by on Jan 24, 2011

BBC Horizon programme. Simon Singh's moving documentary of Andrew Wiles' extraordinary search for the most elusive proof in number theory.

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Science & Technology

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Uploader Comments (dkahn400)

  • Where was this video filmed? Also, wasn't the guy at the beginning kind of....NERDY!!!

  • @DisneyGirlRocks You think?

  • one (1) is a valid exponent, but only the exponent of two (2) will work for the equation a^2 + b^2 = c^2. If you want, you could play with different exponents to see for yourself that only the exponent of two (2) will work.

  • @edgarmartinez08 And after an infinite number of trials you will have proved Fermat correct.

Top Comments

  • @ixcaliber Sorry, that is not a correct statement of the problem. The challenge is to find any 3 whole numbers which, when raised to the same whole number power other than 2, give 3 new numbers, one of which is equal to the sum of the other 2. In other words, find any 4 whole numbers x, y, z and n that fit the equation x^n + y^n = z^n and where n>2 or show that it is impossible. If it were trivial it would not have defeated the world's greatest mathematicians for well over 300 years.

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  • @DisneyGirlRocks "DisneyGirlRocks ", that name says enough. kthnx

  • @DisneyGirlRocks That "guy" at the beginning did what no one else could in four hundred years. His name is one of a few thousand that will be remembered til the end of civilization.

  • @edgarmartinez08 you're not raising it to the first power it is already to the first power.

  • Don't forget the contribution of the Japanese guys and the man that made a subproof wich could be used in the main proof. Without them Andrew Wiles probably wouldn't have been able to prove this.

  • @edgarmartinez08 no way, what I ment was that your suposed proof of Fermat's last theorem is not a mathematical proof since it is not a general proof. e.g If I ask you to prove that (a*b)/2 is greater or equal to sqrt(a*b) with a,b integers you cannot give me an example using a finite number of numbers to prove the inequality, you have to present a general proof... that's what makes Fermat's last theorem so dificult to prove...

  • @kajakpaddler92 I could be wrong, but I think you may be utilizing semantics of our limited English language and relying on an oxymoron as a means to draw your conclusion.

  • @edgarmartinez08 however that is not a mathematical proof unless you prove it for an infinite number of exponents, which by definition is matehmaticaly impossible...

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