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Rightly Dividing

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Uploaded by on Dec 18, 2010

2 Timothy 2:15
Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.

The essential topic of rightly dividing the word of truth is covered in this video, as well as a few relevant doctrines.

Watch the video response. Notice how much emphasis is placed on "the Greek" and how little real understanding it actually gives compared to the King's English. He thinks that by "refuting" the KJB reading of 2 Timothy 2:15 by his own subjective standards, which he was taught in school via brainwashing, that he can throw out everything else in this video that proves there are divisions in the Bible.

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  • @Bill244888

    Now, I've answered all of your contentions. Why have you sidestepped the rest of the verses I cited in my first response? Please explain to me how your view that salvation is ALWAYS by faith alone lines up with the PLAIN, LITERAL meaning of the following: Ezekiel 3:20, Psalm 15, Matthew 25:31-46, and Revelation 22:14. I've got more, but I'll stop where my first response stopped for now.

  • @Bill244888

    James is written to Jews (Jas 1:1). Eph 2:10 only describes what we're supposed to do. But now you're on NT doctrine even though your original contention was over OT salvation.

    Jesus offered the kingdom in Mat 11 and the Jews rejected it. John 6 comes after that (Mat 14:15-21 cf. Jn 6:5-13). AND they're not asking about eternal life like the man in Mat 19:16, they're asking about the works of God. His answers relate to his death (then-future) for eternal life. Not OT!

  • @Bill244888

    Again, Rom 8:3 doesn't disprove what I'm saying. The law can't do everything that Jesus Christ can.

    You know, the rest of that verse says that was a stumblingstone for Israel. Why would it be a stumblingstone if Israelites had been saved by faith alone for centuries under the law? Why, when this discussion continues in Rom 10, is there a contrast drawn between the righteousness which is of faith and the righteousness which is of the law (works Rom 10:5)?

  • @Bill244888

    Any appeal you make to Abraham is invalid because the law came 430 years after. I guess you haven't read Galatians 3:16-17 after all. And if you've read John 1:17, apparently you can't remember that Moses came AFTER Abraham.

    Of course the law doesn't justify! That supports my view, not yours! Under the law a man is either innocent or guilty, and atoning sacrifices provide forgiveness, but not justification, clearance, or the taking away of sins (Ex 34:7, Heb 10:4).

  • @ChristianTruthHammer Faith secures our salvation(Rom. 3:28). Works validate the reality of that faith (James 2, Eph. 2:10)

    John 6:28-29

    "Then they said to him, “What must we do, to be doing the works of God?” Jesus answered them, “This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent.” (Why didn't Jesus tell them to perfectly obey the law?)

  • @ChristianTruthHammer

    Rom. 8:3

    "For God has done what the law, weakened by the flesh, could not do." (past tense, not "can no longer do")

    Rom.9:30-32a

    "What shall we say, then? That Gentiles who did not pursue righteousness have attained it, that is, a righteousness that is by faith; but that Israel who pursued a law that would lead to righteousness did not succeed in reaching that law. Why? Because they did not pursue it by faith, but as if it were based on works."

  • @ChristianTruthHammer

    Abraham's faith was credited as righteousness. The law in and of itself is powerless to bring about salvation

    Rom. 3:20

    "For by works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight, since through the law comes knowledge of sin."

    Acts 13:38-39

    "Let it be known to you therefore, brothers, that through this man forgiveness of sins is proclaimed to you, and by him everyone who believes is freed from everything from which you could not be freed by the law of Moses.

  • @Bill244888

    I have. What about it? How does Abraham disprove the fact that the law is a system of faith and works for salvation? Didn't you ever read Galatians 3:16-17? What about John 1:17? Ezekiel 3:20 (!)? Psalm 15? If salvation in all dispensations is by faith alone, what do you do with Matthew 25:31-46? Or Revelation 22:14? I'm guessing you'll just privately interpret them and pretend they don't mean exactly what they say.

  • O.T. saints were saved by keeping the law?

    You might want to read Romans 4:1-12

  • Next time you go to a restaurant ask your waiter to divide up portions for you and your guests. When he returns with a Quiche Lorraine looking intact, ask him why he didn't DIVIDE it as you had ordered. When he tells you he and the chefs HANDLED it instead, I hope you'll remember this dubious correction of yours.

    DIVIDE means separate (verb) whereas HANDLE EXPLAIN PREACH TEACH CUTTING IN A STRAIGHT LINE (wtf) and STRAIGHTFORWARD DEALING (again wtf) may be commendable but not God's stated will

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